Which of the following, if true, would invalidate the inversion that the phrase “flips the script” refers to?
Started 2 months ago by Shashank in
Explanatory Answer
Diyab's descriptions of grandeur of Versailles match the description of the lavish Middle Eastern palace in Aladdin's story. That is, Galland simply takes up Diyab’s description of a French palace and pins this description on an exotic Middle Eastern palace in the story of Aladdin. That the opulence described is not one witnessed by a French adventurer encountering the exotic Middle East but that of a Middle Eastern observer encountering the wonder of 18th century France is what 'flips the script' (reverses the situation) according to the passage. If the descriptions did not match, there is no question of the script being flipped. So, option 3, if true, would invalidate the idea that Galland's story reverses the point of view of the narrative.
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