See paragraph 1, line 1 :‘coastal capitals picked by trade-focused empires....’.So, empires picked their capitals in order to promote their trading interests.

Paragraph 6 explains the dilemma. Small, poor towns = new jobs in areas of high employment, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers; Larger cities = infrastructure and better-qualified residents, but deprived areas do not benefit. Option 4 simply paraphrases this.

The question asks us to pick the option that those who support decentralisation are least likely to cite, i.e. the option that does not support the argument for decentralisation.

The last paragraph explains how decentralisation begets corruption: journalists in bigger cities are less likely to hold bureaucrats in smaller cities accountable. Those who support decentralisation are not likely to mention this while making their point.

More independence, fresh thinking and lower costs in smaller cities are, on the other hand, arguments for decentralisation.

‘Pedigree’ is used in the sense of ‘history’ here. That is, shifting civil servants in order to improve their living standards is something that is not new and has been tried in the past.

Note the double negative in the question. It’s easier to pick the answer to this question by completing the sentence with the answer option and checking if the statement is true or false.

Relocating government agencies has not always been a success because of a rise in pollution levels and congestion in the new locations. The passage does not mention a rise in pollution levels in smaller cities. So, this option is not supported by the passage.

Relocating government agencies has not always been a success because of the difficulty of attracting talented, well-skilled people in more remote areas. This is true. (see paragraph 4 : ‘agencies that are moved elsewhere can often recruit better workers on lower salaries than in capitals, where well-paying multinationals mop up talent.’)

Relocating government agencies has not always been a success because of increased avenues of corruption away from the capital city. Again, this is true. (see last paragraph)

Relocating government agencies has not always been a success because of high staff losses, as people may not be prepared to move to smaller towns. This is also true. (see paragraph 4: ‘swapping the capital for somewhere smaller is not always agreeable. Attrition rates can exceed 80%.’)

So, options 2, 3 and 4 are true, while 1 is not.

The passage states that Dr. Watrall is ‘not comfortable’ about the arrangement between CyArk and Google as he sees the project as ‘a way for Google to promote Google’, and, at its core, ‘about advertisements and driving traffic.’

Options 1 is easily ruled out, as Dr. Watrall is not opposed to the use digital technology in archaeological sites.

Option 2 is also incorrect. The fact that Dr. Watrall would like the images to belong to a museum or educational institution ‘where there is serious scholarship’ does not automatically imply that he is dismissive of laypeople’s access to specialist images.

Option 3 is incorrect as well. From the passage we gather that CyArk is a non-profit organisation that creates the 3D scanning of historic sites and that Google does not make money off the website. Option 3 labels both Google and CyArk as firms interested in the marketing of archaeological images for commercial use. This is false.

Option 4—that Dr. Watrall is critical about the links between a non-profit and a commercial tech platform for distributing archaeological images—is the correct choice.

Note the context in which ‘digital colonialism’ is mentioned in the passage: ‘...the project is raising questions about Google's motivations and about who should own the digital copyrights. Some critics call it a form of "digital colonialism."’ The problem, according to the passage, is that the countries need CyArk's permission to use the images for commercial purposes.’ So, ‘digital colonialism’ is about the appropriation of the scan copyrights by CyArk-Google.

In Dr. Watrall’s view, the CyArk-Google project is about Google promoting itself and benefitting through advertisements and traffic. Dr. Watrall believes these images, instead, belong on the site of a museum or educational institution, ‘where there is serious scholarship and a very different mission’. His concern relates, primarily, to how the images are put to use.

If CyArk uploads its scanned images of archaeological sites onto museum websites, Dr. Watrall’s objections are invalidated.

Option 1 talks about Google’s advertisements on the website hosting CyArk’s scanned images. This only addresses a very small part of the issue raised by Dr. Watrall.

Option 2 too is incorrect. Dr. Watrall is not opposed to CyArk scanning archaeological sites but is concerned about how the images are used.

Option 3 is tempting, but incorrect. Dr. Watrall does not raise the issue of copyrights—this is discussed later in the passage.

Dr. Thompson describes CyArk owning the copyright of its digital scans of archaeological sites as ‘the latest example of a Western nation appropriating a foreign culture’. Option 2 is the one that closely matches this.

According to the author, high urban density makes cities green. The argument that high density of cities results in an increase in carbon dioxide and global warming goes against this.

Options 1 and 2 are unrelated to the idea of greenness of big cities.

According to the author, high urban density forces ‘minimum energy and material use’, thereby making cities green. Option 4 only talks of increasing cost of utilities for city dwellers, ignoring the point about recycling and reduced opportunities to be wasteful in big cities mentioned in the passage. So, it does not really help undermine the author’s stand.

Energy efficient transportation, recycling of material and sorting of garbage all relate to environment friendliness. Keeping streets clean, on the other hand, does not relate to environment friendliness as such.

The author says that Calthorpe calling the city ‘the most environmentally benign form of human settlement’ jars most people. Why? Because people believe the opposite: that cities are not eco-friendly.

Of the given options 1 and 3 are easily ruled out. Calthorpe argues that the very fact that cities are crowded contributes to their environmental benignity. The point here is not the crowding, but the fact that Calthorpe regards this extreme compactness to be environment friendly.

Note the context in which the author mentions Manaus: ‘One hundred thousand people who would otherwise be deforesting the jungle around Manaus are now prospering in town making such things as mobile phones and televisions’. The idea the author wants to convey is that employment in the city helps stop deforestation.

That cities have suburban as well as office areas does not meaningfully relate to the idea that cities are good places to live in. In the passage, the author mentions employment opportunities (‘give people decent jobs. Then they can afford houses, and gain security’), prevention of destruction of the environment (example of Manaus) and cultural transformation (‘the progress is from hick to metropolitan to cosmopolitan’) as reasons for cities being good places to live in.

The main idea of the passage is summed up in the last paragraph: ‘You are what you speak—the words that run throughout your mind are at least as fundamental to your selfhood as is your ethnicity or your gender.’

The author asks, ‘Which way is Oriental?’ to help readers realise that cultural hierarchies and barriers are not fixed and that they can be mitigated by learning another language.

The author firmly believes that learning another language can help transcend cultural barriers. See paragraph 3: ‘An individual who wrestles with a difficult language can learn to be more sympathetic to outsiders and open to different experiences of the world.’

The author observes ‘both the Chinese and the Egyptians welcomed me because I spoke their languages. My identity as a white male was far less important than my ability to communicate.’ That is, he believes language can help overcome identity politics. His critics’ view would be the opposite: language is insufficient to bridge cultural barriers.

Observe what the author says about how the language learning process changes one’s identity: ‘This learning process—the embarrassments, the frustrations, the gradual sense of understanding and connection—is invariably transformative.’

The embarrassments, the frustrations= the ups and downs of learning a new language

The gradual sense of understanding and connection = Language’s ability to mediate the impact of identity markers one is born with

In the last paragraph, the author states ‘the words that run throughout your mind are at least as fundamental to your selfhood as is your ethnicity or your gender.’ This relates to language’s intrinsic connection to our notions of self and identity.

Only language evolution is not related to language’s ability to change us. The author does not talk about language evolution in the passage.

The question asks which of the given statements cannot be inferred. Let us check each one by one.

Option 1 states British colonialism was at least partly an outcome of Enlightenment rationalism. The fact that the colonial state emerged at least partly as a result of Enlightenment rationalism can be inferred from paragraph 1: ‘the British colonial state represented the great conquering discourse of Enlightenment rationalism... As inheritors and representatives of this discourse, which carried everything before it, this colonial state could hardly adopt for long such a self-denying attitude...’

Option 2 states British colonialism faced resistance from existing structural forms of Indian modernity. This does not sound correct, as the passage only talks about European modernity, not Indian modernity. Paragraph 1 does mention that initiatives to introduce its logic of modernity on the Indian society by the British ‘were resisted by pre-existing structural forms’. Were these structural forms of Indian modernity? This is not mentioned in the passage.

Consider option 3. British colonialism was at least partly shaped by the project of European modernity. This is clearly true. See paragraph 1 : ‘the British colonial state represented the great conquering discourse of Enlightenment rationalism.... As inheritors and representatives of this discourse.... this colonial state could hardly adopt for long such a self-denying attitude. It had restructured everything in Europe...and would do the same in India’. The British colonial state inherited the discourse of Enlightenment rationalism which had restructured everything in Europe.

Option 4 states that British colonialism allowed the treatment of colonies as experimental sites. This can also be easily inferred from paragraph 1: ‘....some empirically inclined theorists of that generation considered the colonies a massive laboratory of utilitarian or other theoretical experiments’.

The question asks us to choose the statement which cannot be seen as supporting the arguments in the passage.

Option 1 states that the introduction of capitalism in India was not through the transformation of feudalism, as happened in Europe. This statement supports the arguments in the passage. See what paragraph 2 says about the introduction of modernity by the British: ‘First, however subtly, it would imply that what was proposed to be built was something like European capitalism. (And, in any case, historians have forcefully argued that what it was to replace was not like feudalism, with or without modificatory adjectives.)’ The passage argues here that what European modernity tried to introduce was not like European capitalism and that what it tried to replace was not like feudalism in Europe.

Option 2 states that modernity was imposed upon India by the British and, therefore, led to underdevelopment. This statement also supports the arguments in the passage. That modernity was imposed on India can be inferred from multiple references in the passage, to quote a few: ‘initiatives for modernity came to assume an external character. The acceptance of modernity came to be connected, ineradicably, with subjection’ and ‘...transformation agendas attack as an external force’. That modernity imposed by the British led to underdevelopment can be inferred from the last lines of the passage: ‘Economic reforms, or rather alterations did not foreshadow the construction of a classical capitalist economy, with its necessary emphasis on extractive and transport sectors. What happened was the creation of a degenerate version of capitalism—what early dependency theorists called the ‘development of underdevelopment’. That is, economic reforms imposed by the British in India only resulted in underdevelopment.

Option 3 states that throughout the history of colonial conquest, natives have often been experimented on by the colonisers. This statement, too, supports the arguments in the passage. See paragraph 1: ‘...empirically inclined theorists of that generation considered the colonies a massive laboratory of utilitarian or other theoretical experiments.’ That is, colonizers regarded colonies as laboratories of practical or theoretical experiments.

Option 4 states that the change in British colonial policy was induced by resistance to modernity in Indian society. This statement does not support the arguments in the passage. Did the resistance to modernity in India result in a change in British colonial policy? The passage does not say this. The passage only talks of resistance resulting in a ‘the map of continuity and discontinuity’ being left behind at the time of independence. So, option 4 is the correct answer.

The British colonial state could not settle for eminence at the cost of its marginality. That is, the British colonial state believed its superior modernity set it apart from the Indian society. But it did not want to be marginalised because of its modernity. So, it began to take initiatives to introduce the logic of modernity into Indian society. Option 3 best captures this.

The passage can be summed up as follows. British colonial policy was guided by the idea of Enlightenment rationalism/ European modernity. Because they believed colonies could be used as laboratories, the British resolved they would do the same in India. However, this imposed modernity came to assume an external character. External modernity was associated with subjugation and met with stiff resistance. What the economic reforms resulted in was only a degenerate version of capitalism and underdevelopment.

Option 2 captures key ideas like ‘external modernity’ and ‘underdevelopment’ that none of the other options mention.

‘Endogenous change’ means change from within. The first line means that the transformation of the Indian society did not proceed due to changes within the system. ‘Transformation agendas attack as an external force’ means the agenda to transform the society was imposed upon by external forces. Here, the external force is the colonial agenda. Option 4 sums this up best.

Tricky question.

Sentence 1 says that conceptualisations of 'women's time' as contrary to clock-time and clock-time as synonymous with economic rationalism are two results of "this representation". The representation referred to here can only be the representation of clock-time in feminist literature as a masculine 'time is money' artefact—mentioned in sentence 4. Feminist literature representing clock-time as masculine implies the conceptualisation of 'women's time' as contrary to clock-time. The idea that time is money relates to economic rationalism. So, sentence 1 follows sentence 4.

Sentence 3 introduces the idea of 'caring time'. Sentence 2 mentions all 4 conceptualisations of time referred to in sentences 4, 1 and 3. It is best placed at the end of the paragraph as it lays down the main premise of 'this article' that everyday caring practices incorporate a multiplicity of times. So, 4132 is the right order.

The sentences given relate to adaptive behaviour, so sentence 2 offers the best start to the paragraph. Sentence 2 states that adaptive behaviour depends on cognitive economy—that is, minimising thinking and information processing effort—by treating objects as equivalent. Sentence 4 elaborates what 'treating objects as equivalent' involves. So, 4 follows 2. Of the remaining sentences, 3 logically follows 2, as it explains that the information we receive from the world has both structure and order. This introduces the idea of ‘structure’ in the living world. Sentence 1 adds to 3. So, 2431 is the correct order.

Sentence 2 introduces the idea of 'atonality' in music. So, it is the best sentence to start the paragraph. Sentence 1 adds to 2, explaining that atonal music may seem like noise to the uninitiated listener. 2 leads to 4, which states that atonality is one of the most important movements in 20th century music. 3 adds to 4, explaining that a lot of knowledge, skill, and technical expertise required to compose or perform atonal music. 2143 is the logical order.

Of the given sentences, sentence 3 is the best opening statement. 3 leads on to 4, which defines teleology and the idea of nature as having a predetermined destiny with component parts. 2, which starts off with "these parts" clearly follows 4. 1 sums up the paragraph. So, 3421 is the correct order.

The key idea of the passage is that language, which is unique to humans, is more than just linguistic features. It is a complex bundle of traits evolved over time that crucially draws on important cognitive aspects such as memory.

Option 3 is the only option that mentions the idea of language drawing upon aspects of cognition, such as memory. This is mentioned as a crucial feature in the paragraph and must hence feature in the summary.

The main idea of the paragraph is that hybrid organizations are more powerful and have higher ability to achieve critical mass as individuals with past involvement in other movements are more likely to join hybrid organizations. Option 4 captures the key ideas of the paragraph best.

Note here that though the paragraph cities the example of studies of the post-9/11 U.S. anti-war movement, this is not the focus of the passage. The example simply illustrates the idea that individuals with different points of view are more likely to join hybrid organisations.

The paragraph given explains that while open-plan offices were created with the idea of liberating workers, things did not work to plan, as companies used these spaces to cram in as many workers as they could, in a soul-less "white-collar assembly line".

Option 3 states that wall-free spaces 'could have worked out' had companies cared for workers' satisfaction. But the paragraph given merely talks of why the idea of wall-free office spaces failed: 3 is hence not a satisfactory summary of the paragraph.

Option 4 is incorrect as it goes too far. The paragraph says companies took up the idea of wall-free spaces less out of a democratic ideology than a desire to pack in workers. This does not imply that companies don't believe in democratic ideology.

Options 1 and 2 are close, but 2 is a better option than 1 as it brings in the points about the ‘utopian’ (idealistic) intentions of the inventors of wall-free offices and the way cramming of workers became a means of invading their privacy and exploiting them.

While sentences 1, 3, 4 and 5 relate to the reader of the single panel comic and the importance of the reader's ability to infer what happened before and after, sentence 2 is about the creator of the comics. So, 2 is the odd one out.

Option 1 is about the importance of self-examination and rumination. All other sentences argue against rumination. The sentence order 4325 makes a coherent paragraph about illeism or speaking about oneself in the third person.

Sentences 1, 3, 4 and 5 relate to plastic in oceans affecting marine life, producing pervasive environmental problems. On the other hand, option 2 talks of the 'largest numerical proportion' of ocean plastic ‘falling in small size fractions’ – an unrelated idea.

From (1) and (5), the persons in Team 1 speak English. Chinese. Arabic and French. (Robert
speaks both Arabic and French).
From (1) and (5), the persons in Team 3 speak. English, Chinese and Dutch. (Quentin speaks
Dutch and English). Since each person speaks two languages and each team speaks exactly
four languages, we need to find one person for Team 3. who speaks one language among
English, Chinese and Dutch and a different language apart from these three.
Since, Paula and Sally together speak Basque, Chinese and English and they are together in
exactly two teams, they cannot be in Team 1. They must be in Teams 2 and 3.
Hence, from (5) and the above, Paula, Quentin and Sally, (Basque. Chinese. Dutch and
English) are in Team 3. Since there are three persons in Team 3. Teams 1 and 2 should also
have three persons each. Team 1 speaks, English, Chinese, Arabic and French. Robert (Arabic
and French) is one of the team members. Now, two more persons, who speak languages
among the above four are to be selected. It is possible only with Paula and Terence.
From (2) Basque and French are spoken by two teams. Hence, Team 2 speaks these two
languages. Paula and Sally are there in Team 2 (Basque, Chinese and English). We need to
find one more person, who speaks one of these three languages and French. It is possible
with only Terence.

From (1) and (5), the persons in Team 1 speak English. Chinese. Arabic and French. (Robert
speaks both Arabic and French).
From (1) and (5), the persons in Team 3 speak. English, Chinese and Dutch. (Quentin speaks
Dutch and English). Since each person speaks two languages and each team speaks exactly
four languages, we need to find one person for Team 3. who speaks one language among
English, Chinese and Dutch and a different language apart from these three.
Since, Paula and Sally together speak Basque, Chinese and English and they are together in
exactly two teams, they cannot be in Team 1. They must be in Teams 2 and 3.
Hence, from (5) and the above, Paula, Quentin and Sally, (Basque. Chinese. Dutch and
English) are in Team 3. Since there are three persons in Team 3. Teams 1 and 2 should also
have three persons each. Team 1 speaks, English, Chinese, Arabic and French. Robert (Arabic
and French) is one of the team members. Now, two more persons, who speak languages
among the above four are to be selected. It is possible only with Paula and Terence.
From (2) Basque and French are spoken by two teams. Hence, Team 2 speaks these two
languages. Paula and Sally are there in Team 2 (Basque, Chinese and English). We need to
find one more person, who speaks one of these three languages and French. It is possible
with only Terence.

From (1) and (5), the persons in Team 1 speak English. Chinese. Arabic and French. (Robert
speaks both Arabic and French).
From (1) and (5), the persons in Team 3 speak. English, Chinese and Dutch. (Quentin speaks
Dutch and English). Since each person speaks two languages and each team speaks exactly
four languages, we need to find one person for Team 3. who speaks one language among
English, Chinese and Dutch and a different language apart from these three.
Since, Paula and Sally together speak Basque, Chinese and English and they are together in
exactly two teams, they cannot be in Team 1. They must be in Teams 2 and 3.
Hence, from (5) and the above, Paula, Quentin and Sally, (Basque. Chinese. Dutch and
English) are in Team 3. Since there are three persons in Team 3. Teams 1 and 2 should also
have three persons each. Team 1 speaks, English, Chinese, Arabic and French. Robert (Arabic
and French) is one of the team members. Now, two more persons, who speak languages
among the above four are to be selected. It is possible only with Paula and Terence.
From (2) Basque and French are spoken by two teams. Hence, Team 2 speaks these two
languages. Paula and Sally are there in Team 2 (Basque, Chinese and English). We need to
find one more person, who speaks one of these three languages and French. It is possible
with only Terence.

From (1) and (5), the persons in Team 1 speak English. Chinese. Arabic and French. (Robert
speaks both Arabic and French).
From (1) and (5), the persons in Team 3 speak. English, Chinese and Dutch. (Quentin speaks
Dutch and English). Since each person speaks two languages and each team speaks exactly
four languages, we need to find one person for Team 3. who speaks one language among
English, Chinese and Dutch and a different language apart from these three.
Since, Paula and Sally together speak Basque, Chinese and English and they are together in
exactly two teams, they cannot be in Team 1. They must be in Teams 2 and 3.
Hence, from (5) and the above, Paula, Quentin and Sally, (Basque. Chinese. Dutch and
English) are in Team 3. Since there are three persons in Team 3. Teams 1 and 2 should also
have three persons each. Team 1 speaks, English, Chinese, Arabic and French. Robert (Arabic
and French) is one of the team members. Now, two more persons, who speak languages
among the above four are to be selected. It is possible only with Paula and Terence.
From (2) Basque and French are spoken by two teams. Hence, Team 2 speaks these two
languages. Paula and Sally are there in Team 2 (Basque, Chinese and English). We need to
find one more person, who speaks one of these three languages and French. It is possible
with only Terence.

The actual rainfall in 2019 and the Long Period

Average (LPA) for the different states are as follows.

The heavy monsoon states are Maharashtra, Sikkim, Mizoram, Goa, Arunachal, Kerala and
Meghalaya. Among these, Arunachal, Kerala and Meghalaya have a negative deviation from
respective LPAs in 2019. The required percentage = 3/7*100 = 42.86

The actual rainfall in 2019 and the Long Period

Average (LPA) for the different states are as follows.

 The Low monsoon states are Gujarat, Karnataka, Rajasthan, MP, Assam, WB, Jharkhand,
Delhi and Manipur. The deviation from LPA for these states are 25,20,15, 10,-10,-30,-35,-40
and -60. The median value is -10

The actual rainfall in 2019 and the Long Period

Average (LPA) for the different states are as follows.

The states which have a negative deviation from LPA and have an actual rainfall of 600 mm
or less are Assam, WB, Jharkhand, Delhi and Manipur. The average rainfall in these states is
2300/5 = 460 mm

The actual rainfall in 2019 and the Long Period

Average (LPA) for the different states are as follows.

The actual rainfall in Gujarat in 2019 is 600 mm. The rainfall in Gujarat in 2009 was 500 mm.
As the value of 500 is replaced by 600 in calculating the LPA, the LPA would increase by 10
as it is the average of 10 years.
Ans: (490 mm)

The set of students who like Sunita and Ragini are disjoint sets.
Hence, the Venn diagram can be drawn as follows

There are 500 students in all.
From statement (2)
Sunita = 200. Hence, Ragini = 300.
From statement (1) A (Sunita) + A (Ragini) = 250 and B (Sunita) + B (Ragini) = 250.
From (2), A (Sunita) = 160. Hence, A (Ragini) = 90.
From (4), B (Sunita) = 20 % of 250 = 50. Hence, B (Ragini) = 200.
From (6), g (Sunita) = 50 and hence, b (Sunita) = 0 and a (Sunita) = 110. Hence, n (Sunita) =
40.
From (7), n (Ragini) = 60
It is given that 250 support B, hence the other 250 do not support B.
From (5), (a + n) of Ragini = 40 % of 250 = 100. Hence, a (Ragini) = 40.
Thus, the final solution is as follows.

The required value is 160/250*100 = 64

The set of students who like Sunita and Ragini are disjoint sets.
Hence, the Venn diagram can be drawn as follows

There are 500 students in all.
From statement (2)
Sunita = 200. Hence, Ragini = 300.
From statement (1) A (Sunita) + A (Ragini) = 250 and B (Sunita) + B (Ragini) = 250.
From (2), A (Sunita) = 160. Hence, A (Ragini) = 90.
From (4), B (Sunita) = 20 % of 250 = 50. Hence, B (Ragini) = 200.
From (6), g (Sunita) = 50 and hence, b (Sunita) = 0 and a (Sunita) = 110. Hence, n (Sunita) =
40.
From (7), n (Ragini) = 60
It is given that 250 support B, hence the other 250 do not support B.
From (5), (a + n) of Ragini = 40 % of 250 = 100. Hence, a (Ragini) = 40.
Thus, the final solution is as follows.

The required answer is 210/250*100 = 84

The set of students who like Sunita and Ragini are disjoint sets.
Hence, the Venn diagram can be drawn as follows

There are 500 students in all.
From statement (2)
Sunita = 200. Hence, Ragini = 300.
From statement (1) A (Sunita) + A (Ragini) = 250 and B (Sunita) + B (Ragini) = 250.
From (2), A (Sunita) = 160. Hence, A (Ragini) = 90.
From (4), B (Sunita) = 20 % of 250 = 50. Hence, B (Ragini) = 200.
From (6), g (Sunita) = 50 and hence, b (Sunita) = 0 and a (Sunita) = 110. Hence, n (Sunita) =
40.
From (7), n (Ragini) = 60
It is given that 250 support B, hence the other 250 do not support B.
From (5), (a + n) of Ragini = 40 % of 250 = 100. Hence, a (Ragini) = 40.
Thus, the final solution is as follows.

The required answer is 50/250*100 = 50

The set of students who like Sunita and Ragini are disjoint sets.
Hence, the Venn diagram can be drawn as follows

There are 500 students in all.
From statement (2)
Sunita = 200. Hence, Ragini = 300.
From statement (1) A (Sunita) + A (Ragini) = 250 and B (Sunita) + B (Ragini) = 250.
From (2), A (Sunita) = 160. Hence, A (Ragini) = 90.
From (4), B (Sunita) = 20 % of 250 = 50. Hence, B (Ragini) = 200.
From (6), g (Sunita) = 50 and hence, b (Sunita) = 0 and a (Sunita) = 110. Hence, n (Sunita) =
40.
From (7), n (Ragini) = 60
It is given that 250 support B, hence the other 250 do not support B.
From (5), (a + n) of Ragini = 40 % of 250 = 100. Hence, a (Ragini) = 40.
Thus, the final solution is as follows.

The students who supported proposal B but not A are b (Sunita) and b (Ragini). Among
them those supported Ragini are b (Ragini) 150. Ans: (150)

. From 9-11: 30, we have 150 minutes. Doctors Ben, Kane and Wayne take 10,15 and 20
minutes respectively for each patient. Therefore Ben, Kane and Wayne can see 150/10=15,
150/15=10 and 150/25=6 respectively. Therefore Ben, Kane and Wayne can see a maximum
of 15,10 and 6 patients respectively every day. Sum =31

Given, on Saturday, the queue is not empty.
=> Each doctor sees the maximum number of patients on a day.
Given Ben, Kane and Wayne charge Rs.100, 200 and 300 respectively.
=> Ben earns 15 (100)= Rs.1500,Kane earns 10(200)
= Rs .2000, Wayne earns 6(300)= Rs .1800
Therefore, Kane earns the maximum amount.
Ans: (Dr. Kane)

Mr. Singh takes maximum duration when he enters Dr. Wayne’s room, who sees each
patient for 25 minutes

He was at the clinic for 85 minutes.
Similarly On Wednesday, he would meet Ben and he would be at the clinic for 70 minutes.
On Friday, he would meet Ben and he would be at the clinic for 70 minutes.
Therefore, Singh stays at the clinic for the maximum duration on Monday
Ans: (Monday)

The above pattern continues.
Hence, there is no time where all the doctors are simultaneously free.
Ans: (0)

The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
follows:

It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
10+13+ 4 = 27.
The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
sum must be 27.
The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
follows:

It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
10+13+ 4 = 27.
The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
sum must be 27.
The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
follows:

It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
10+13+ 4 = 27.
The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
sum must be 27.
The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
follows:

It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
10+13+ 4 = 27.
The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
sum must be 27.
The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

In three slots (row 2 , column 1), (row 1 , column 2) and (row 2, column 3), the amount in
the three pouches strictly exceeds 10

In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
following.

Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
each.
It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
we get the following:

In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
following.

Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
each.
It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
we get the following:

In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
following.

Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
each.
It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
we get the following:

In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
following.

Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
each.
It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
we get the following:

The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
200 .
Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

Percentage profit of the store in 2018= 50/200 = 25%

The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
200 .
Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

 The ratio of the revenues =160 :100 = 8 :5

The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
200 .
Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

 Profit of the store from the Electronics department in 2016 =100 -30 = 70
Total profit =100 The required percentage = 70%.

The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
200 .
Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

 Profit percentage of the store in 2017 =100 /300 =33.3%
Profit percentage of the store in 2018 = 50/200 = 25.0%
The required difference 33.3- 25.0 8.3