We are told that each coach had at least two players. Clue 1 says that Xena trained more people than Yuki.
It must be the case that Yuki trained only two people. If Yuki had trained three, then Xena would have trained at
least four players, leaving only one for Zara.
Hence, Yuki trained two people.
Coming to the scores given to the players themselves:
We are given that only 5 and 7 received a sam rating; everyone else received a distinct rating.
We are also given their average to be 4 (clue 4), giving the sum of all the scores they got to be 32
The sum of all numbers from 1 to 7 would be , hence the repeated score must be 32-28 = 4
Thus, the score of 5 and 7 was 4
Clue 5 says that player 2 got the highest score, which is 7
Clue 7 says that player 4 got a score double that of player 8 but less than player 5; the only possibility is player 4
getting 2 and player 8 getting 1.
Now, considering clues 2, 3 and 6:
We are given the same coach trained in 5 and 7. And 2, 3, and 5 were trained by different coaches, with 1 and 4
being trained by the same coach.
Cheer 6 informs us about the average number of players the coaches train.
We know that Yuki trained only two players.
Let's take the average score of Yuki's players to be x
The average of Xena's players would be x/2, and that of Zara's players would be x-2
The total score of Yuki's players would be 2x.
The total score of Xena's players would be 3x/2 or 2x.
The total score of Zara's players would be 3x-6 or 2x-4
We have two cases to consider:
Let's say Xena and Zara had three players each.
The total score of Yuki's players would be 2x.
The total score of Xena's players would be 3x/2.
The total score of Zara's players would be 3x-6.
2 ×
8 7 = 28

The sum of all these scores would be which should be equal to 32
This would give us the value of x as
Which would give a non-integral value of 2s, that is, the sum of Yuki's player's score.
Hence, this must not be the case.
The other possibility:
The total score of Yuki's players would be 2x.
The total score of Xena's players would be 2x.
The total score of Zara's players would be 2x-4.
The sum of all these scores would be 6x-4, which should be equal to 32
This would give the value of x as 6
Hence, the sum of all of Yuki's players would be 12
The sum of all of Xena's players would be 12
The sum of all of Zara's players would be 8
Yuki has only two players whose scores add up to 12; the only combination possible is scores 7+5, where seven
were scored by player 2. Hence, player two must be under Yuki.
Zara got a total of 8 scores, with 7 and 5 gone. The combinations that could get this score are 2+6 and 4+4
The score of 2 is obtained by player 4, which must come with player 1
It is possible that 1 could have gotten a score 6
But then we run into a contradiction: players 3 and 5 would end up under the same coach.
Hence, Zara must have gotten 8 through 4+4 with players 5 and 7.
All the remaining scores must be with Xena, adding up to 12, which is the case.
4 and 1 must be present together, and 3 must be present in Xena as well, giving us the arrangement.

Score of player 7 was 4

The rating of player 6 was 5
Therefore, 5 is the correct answer.

We can determine the ratings of all the players except 1 and 3
Therefore, 6 is the correct answer

Xena coached players numbered 1, 3, 4 and 8
Therefore, Option B is the correct answer

The question is "Assume that the annual rate of growth in PAT over the previous year (ARG) remained constant over the years for each of the six firms. Which among the firms A, B, C, and E had the highest ARG? "

Answer:

Since the annual growth rate in PAT is constant, we can compare the ratio changes in the firm’s PAT in 2019 and 2023 and then compare them.

Firm A: 3900 / 3000 = 1.3

Firm B: 3800 / 2800 = 1.35

Firm C: 3000 / 2400 = 1.25

Firm E: 3500 / 2400 = 1.45

Therefore, the highest among these will be for E.

Hence, the answer is 'Firm E'

The question is "The ratio of the amount of money spent by Firm C on R&D in 2019 to that in 2023 is closest to"

Answer:

Amount of money spent by any firm is proportional to areas on the firm’s PAT.

The amount of money spent by Firm C on R&D in 2019 = 2400 * π * 1.5 * 1.5.

The amount of money spent by Firm C on R&D in 2023 = 3000 * π * 1 * 1.

Ratio = (2400 * 1.5 * 1.5) / (3000 * 1 * 1) = 9 / 5.

Hence, the answer is '9 : 5'

The question is "Which among the firms A, C, E, and F had the maximum PAT per employee in 2023?"

Answer:

PAT per Employee for firm C in 2023 = 3000 / 800 = 3.75

PAT per Employee for firm A in 2023 = 3900 / 1300 = 3

PAT per Employee for firm E in 2023 = 3500 / 1400 = 2.5

PAT per Employee for firm F in 2023 = 3200 / 1000 = 3.2

The value is maximum for firm C.

Hence, the answer is 'Firm C'

The question is "Which among the firms C, D, E, and F had the least amount of R&D spending per employee in 2023?"

Answer:

R&D spending per employee for firm D in 2023 = (^{2400 × 2 × 2}⁄₈₀₀) = 12

R&D spending per employee for firm E in 2023 = (^{3500 × 3 × 3}⁄₁₄₀₀) = 22.5

R&D spending per employee for firm C in 2023 = (^{3000 × 2 × 2}⁄₈₀₀) = 15

R&D spending per employee for firm F in 2023 = (^{3200 × 2 × 2}⁄₁₀₀₀) = 12.8

Firm D has the least amount of R&D spending per employee in 2023.

Hence, the answer is 'Firm D'

Day 2

Total number of Buyers in Day 2 = 50.

Daily Average on Day 2 =
(1×5 + 2×10 + 3×5 + 4×20 + 5×10) / 50 = 170 / 50 = 3.4

DAY 1:

Cumulative averages on Day 1 and Day 2 were 3 and 3.1 respectively.

Let the number of Buyers in Day 1 = x.

(3x + 170) / (x + 50) = 3.1

Solving, 3x + 170 = 3.1(x + 50);
3x + 170 = 3.1x + 155;
0.1x = 15;
x = 150.

Therefore, the number of Buyers in Day 1 = 150.

DAY 3:

Total number of Buyers in Day 3 = 100.

The numbers of buyers giving each product rating are non-zero multiples of 10.
Number of buyers giving rating 1 = Number of buyers giving rating 2 = Half of number of buyers giving rating 3.
The modes of the product ratings were 4 and 5.

Sum of the number of buyers = 4A + 2B = 100.

The only possible solution for the equation and B value being the mode is A = 10 and B = 30.

Product rating on Day 3 = (1×10 + 2×10 + 3×20 + 4×30 + 5×30) / 100 = 360 / 100 = 3.6

Cumulative rating on Day 3 = (3×150 + 3.4×50 + 3.6×100) / (150 + 50 + 100) = 980 / 300 = 3.266

Day 2

Total number of Buyers in Day 2 = 50.

Daily Average on Day 2 =
(1×5 + 2×10 + 3×5 + 4×20 + 5×10) / 50 = 170 / 50 = 3.4

DAY 1:

Cumulative averages on Day 1 and Day 2 were 3 and 3.1 respectively.

Let the number of Buyers in Day 1 = x.

(3x + 170) / (x + 50) = 3.1

Solving, 3x + 170 = 3.1(x + 50);
3x + 170 = 3.1x + 155;
0.1x = 15;
x = 150.

Therefore, the number of Buyers in Day 1 = 150.

DAY 3:

Total number of Buyers in Day 3 = 100.

The numbers of buyers giving each product rating are non-zero multiples of 10.
Number of buyers giving rating 1 = Number of buyers giving rating 2 = Half of number of buyers giving rating 3.
The modes of the product ratings were 4 and 5.

Sum of the number of buyers = 4A + 2B = 100.

The only possible solution for the equation and B value being the mode is A = 10 and B = 30.

Product rating on Day 3 = (1×10 + 2×10 + 3×20 + 4×30 + 5×30) / 100 = 360 / 100 = 3.6

Cumulative rating on Day 3 = (3×150 + 3.4×50 + 3.6×100) / (150 + 50 + 100) = 980 / 300 = 3.266

The question is "What is the daily average rating of Day 3?"

Hence, the answer is '3.6'

Day 2

Total number of Buyers in Day 2 = 50.

Daily Average on Day 2 =
(1×5 + 2×10 + 3×5 + 4×20 + 5×10) / 50 = 170 / 50 = 3.4

DAY 1:

Cumulative averages on Day 1 and Day 2 were 3 and 3.1 respectively.

Let the number of Buyers in Day 1 = x.

(3x + 170) / (x + 50) = 3.1

Solving, 3x + 170 = 3.1(x + 50);
3x + 170 = 3.1x + 155;
0.1x = 15;
x = 150.

Therefore, the number of Buyers in Day 1 = 150.

DAY 3:

Total number of Buyers in Day 3 = 100.

The numbers of buyers giving each product rating are non-zero multiples of 10.
Number of buyers giving rating 1 = Number of buyers giving rating 2 = Half of number of buyers giving rating 3.
The modes of the product ratings were 4 and 5.

Sum of the number of buyers = 4A + 2B = 100.

The only possible solution for the equation and B value being the mode is A = 10 and B = 30.

Product rating on Day 3 = (1×10 + 2×10 + 3×20 + 4×30 + 5×30) / 100 = 360 / 100 = 3.6

Cumulative rating on Day 3 = (3×150 + 3.4×50 + 3.6×100) / (150 + 50 + 100) = 980 / 300 = 3.266

The question is "What is the median of all ratings given on Day 3?"

Answer: No of 1s’= 10; No of 2’s= 10; No of 3’s= 20; No of 4’s= 30; No of 5’s= 30.
Therefore, the median will be average of 50th and 51st term which is (4+4)/2 = 4.

Hence, the answer is '4'

Day 2

Total number of Buyers in Day 2 = 50.

Daily Average on Day 2 =
(1×5 + 2×10 + 3×5 + 4×20 + 5×10) / 50 = 170 / 50 = 3.4

DAY 1:

Cumulative averages on Day 1 and Day 2 were 3 and 3.1 respectively.

Let the number of Buyers in Day 1 = x.

(3x + 170) / (x + 50) = 3.1

Solving, 3x + 170 = 3.1(x + 50);
3x + 170 = 3.1x + 155;
0.1x = 15;
x = 150.

Therefore, the number of Buyers in Day 1 = 150.

DAY 3:

Total number of Buyers in Day 3 = 100.

The numbers of buyers giving each product rating are non-zero multiples of 10.
Number of buyers giving rating 1 = Number of buyers giving rating 2 = Half of number of buyers giving rating 3.
The modes of the product ratings were 4 and 5.

Sum of the number of buyers = 4A + 2B = 100.

The only possible solution for the equation and B value being the mode is A = 10 and B = 30.

Product rating on Day 3 = (1×10 + 2×10 + 3×20 + 4×30 + 5×30) / 100 = 360 / 100 = 3.6

Cumulative rating on Day 3 = (3×150 + 3.4×50 + 3.6×100) / (150 + 50 + 100) = 980 / 300 = 3.266

The question is "Which of the following is true about the cumulative average ratings of Day 2 and Day 3?"

Answer: Percentage increase from Day 2 to Day 3= ((3.266-3.1))/3.1 *100= 5.37%

Hence, the answer is 'The cumulative average of Day 3 increased by a percentage between 5% and 8% from Day 2.'

The first thing to realise here is the lengths of the paths.
KN should be equal to LM, giving the length of KO using Pythagoras theorem as 500m
Similarly, the length of HJ=OP=150m and length of GJ=EL=200m, giving the length of HG as 250 m
The shortest path from L to B and then to P (or the other way around would involve) using these hypotenuses
as much as possible instead of the two adjacent sides. The shortest can be visualised as shown below or
multitude of others variations, as there are multiple ways that would make one travel the shortest distance)

Since we can only walk along the side of lakes, that drastically reduces the paths we can take.
The diagram below shows the path with the maximum distance travelled.

The path is CD-DE-EF-FK-KL-LM-MN-NK-KJ-JG-GF-FC
(the reverse of this path is also valid)
We can either manually add the lengths or use shorter methods to note that in the path we travel walkways of
length 400 m 4 times (DE, LM, KN, EF), walkways of length 300m 6 times (CD, EF, KL, MN, KJ, GF) and walkways
of length 200 m 2 times (FK, JG)
Giving the total length to be 1600+1800+400 = 3800
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

Counter to the first question, we should minimize the use of those hypotenuse walkways as they reduce the
distance we travel.
The longest possible route would include then travelling through the edges of the rectangles and sqaures, and
not touch any point more than once.
Best case scenario would be us touching each point exactly once.
This can be visualized as:

3500
Similar to the previous question, we should try to avoid the hypotenuse

The total path distance would be 300(CD) + 400(DE) + 300(EF) + 200(FK) + 400(KN) + 300(NO) + 150(OP) +
400(PI) + 150(IJ) + 200(JG) + 400(GB) + 300(BC)
Adding up to 3,500 meters
Therefore, 3500 is the correct answer

We are given that the numbers keep increasing from left to right (clue 1), and the number keeps decreasing
from top to bottom (clue 2)
The key takeaway from this is that 10 must be placed in Row 1, column 4, as placing it anywhere else would
mean that the number above it, or right to it, must be greater than 10, which is not an option.
Clue 3 says that one is either in the same row or the same column as 10.
The same logic that we used for 10 applies for 1; it must be either in Row 1, column 1, or Row 4, column 4; we
don't know which one yet.
We are given that 2 and 3 are not in the same column or row as 10, meaning that they must occupy two spots
from (Row 2, Col. 2), (Row 2, Col. 3), and (Row 3, Col. 3)
2 and 3 must be present in Row 2, column 2 or Row 3, column 3, as there is no number smaller than it to be in
the cell left to it.
Clue 6 says that 4 and 6 are in the same row; this can be rows 1, 2, or 3.
Clue 5 is a good starting point.
Once we found the position of 10, the only positions possible for 9 are R1C3 or R2C4

If 9 is placed in R2C4, 7 and 8 must be placed in row 1.
Clue 6 says that 4 and 6 are in the same row, but with 7 and 8 in row 1, no rows are left with two spaces. Hence,
9 can not be in R2C4, and the arrangement must be:
7 and 8 must be in column 4, occupying R3C4 and R2C4, respectively.
Hence, 4, 6 must be in row 1:

We are given that the numbers keep increasing from left to right (clue 1), and the number keeps decreasing
from top to bottom (clue 2)
The key takeaway from this is that 10 must be placed in Row 1, column 4, as placing it anywhere else would
mean that the number above it, or right to it, must be greater than 10, which is not an option.
Clue 3 says that one is either in the same row or the same column as 10.
The same logic that we used for 10 applies for 1; it must be either in Row 1, column 1, or Row 4, column 4; we
don't know which one yet.
We are given that 2 and 3 are not in the same column or row as 10, meaning that they must occupy two spots
from (Row 2, Col. 2), (Row 2, Col. 3), and (Row 3, Col. 3)
2 and 3 must be present in Row 2, column 2 or Row 3, column 3, as there is no number smaller than it to be in
the cell left to it.
Clue 6 says that 4 and 6 are in the same row; this can be rows 1, 2, or 3.
Clue 5 is a good starting point.
Once we found the position of 10, the only positions possible for 9 are R1C3 or R2C4

If 9 is placed in R2C4, 7 and 8 must be placed in row 1.
Clue 6 says that 4 and 6 are in the same row, but with 7 and 8 in row 1, no rows are left with two spaces. Hence,
9 can not be in R2C4, and the arrangement must be:
7 and 8 must be in column 4, occupying R3C4 and R2C4, respectively.
Hence, 4, 6 must be in row 1:

We are given that the numbers keep increasing from left to right (clue 1), and the number keeps decreasing
from top to bottom (clue 2)
The key takeaway from this is that 10 must be placed in Row 1, column 4, as placing it anywhere else would
mean that the number above it, or right to it, must be greater than 10, which is not an option.
Clue 3 says that one is either in the same row or the same column as 10.
The same logic that we used for 10 applies for 1; it must be either in Row 1, column 1, or Row 4, column 4; we
don't know which one yet.
We are given that 2 and 3 are not in the same column or row as 10, meaning that they must occupy two spots
from (Row 2, Col. 2), (Row 2, Col. 3), and (Row 3, Col. 3)
2 and 3 must be present in Row 2, column 2 or Row 3, column 3, as there is no number smaller than it to be in
the cell left to it.
Clue 6 says that 4 and 6 are in the same row; this can be rows 1, 2, or 3.
Clue 5 is a good starting point.
Once we found the position of 10, the only positions possible for 9 are R1C3 or R2C4

If 9 is placed in R2C4, 7 and 8 must be placed in row 1.
Clue 6 says that 4 and 6 are in the same row, but with 7 and 8 in row 1, no rows are left with two spaces. Hence,
9 can not be in R2C4, and the arrangement must be:
7 and 8 must be in column 4, occupying R3C4 and R2C4, respectively.
Hence, 4, 6 must be in row 1:

We are given that the numbers keep increasing from left to right (clue 1), and the number keeps decreasing
from top to bottom (clue 2)
The key takeaway from this is that 10 must be placed in Row 1, column 4, as placing it anywhere else would
mean that the number above it, or right to it, must be greater than 10, which is not an option.
Clue 3 says that one is either in the same row or the same column as 10.
The same logic that we used for 10 applies for 1; it must be either in Row 1, column 1, or Row 4, column 4; we
don't know which one yet.
We are given that 2 and 3 are not in the same column or row as 10, meaning that they must occupy two spots
from (Row 2, Col. 2), (Row 2, Col. 3), and (Row 3, Col. 3)
2 and 3 must be present in Row 2, column 2 or Row 3, column 3, as there is no number smaller than it to be in
the cell left to it.
Clue 6 says that 4 and 6 are in the same row; this can be rows 1, 2, or 3.
Clue 5 is a good starting point.
Once we found the position of 10, the only positions possible for 9 are R1C3 or R2C4

If 9 is placed in R2C4, 7 and 8 must be placed in row 1.
Clue 6 says that 4 and 6 are in the same row, but with 7 and 8 in row 1, no rows are left with two spaces. Hence,
9 can not be in R2C4, and the arrangement must be:
7 and 8 must be in column 4, occupying R3C4 and R2C4, respectively.
Hence, 4, 6 must be in row 1:

Placements of all the numbers except 2 and 3 can be determined.
Therefore, 2 is the correct answer

The sum of numbers in the 4th column is 10+8+7+1 = 26
Therefore, 26 is the correct answer.

Option D is the correct answer.
The passage states that: “As they become more reliant on human food they might find at campsites or in
rubbish bins, they become less avoidant of humans. Losing that instinctive fear response puts them into more
situations where they could get into an altercation with a human, which often results in that bear being put
down by humans."
This means that the factor contributing most to carnivores' habituation to human presence is the reduction in
instinctive fear response and reliance on human food sources, which is evident in option D.
Option A: The passage does not mention their natural aggression. It focuses more on losing fear due to food
reliance on human food.
Option B: The passage mentions climate change as a possible reason for increased conflict, but it doesn't
suggest it directly contributes to loss of fear or habituation.
Option C: The passage does not mention about the predatory perception of humans as potential prey, hence
eliminated.

Option D is the correct answer. The passage mentions that landscape heterogeneity (a mix of farmland, forests,
and carnivore habitats ) in rural areas of low-income countries creates more opportunities for human-carnivore
encounters.
As Penteriani’s research shows, such landscapes increase the statistical probability of these conflicts because
the areas are interspersed with human and carnivore habitats. This aligns with option D.
Option A: This is inconsistent with the passage. The passage states, "The likelihood of human-carnivore
conflicts appears to be higher in areas of low-income countries dominated by vast rural landscapes and
farmland". Therefore, it is not less prone, rather more prone as per the passage.

Option B: The passage does not claim that landscape heterogeneity inherently decreases the chances of
human-carnivore conflict. Instead, it states that diversity increases the likelihood of encounters rather than
reducing it.
Option C: The passage does not state that homogeneous landscapes cause high rates of conflict due to
predictability. Instead, it suggests that landscape heterogeneity increases encounters.

Option A: Climate change has had negligible effects on the frequency of carnivore-human interactions in
affected regions.
False version 1: Climate change has had no effect on the frequency of carnivore-human interactions in affected
regions. - Inconsistent with the passage
False version 2: Climate change has had a lot of effect on the frequency of carnivore-human interactions in
affected regions. - Consistent
As one of the versions contradicts the passage, we can say that the statement if false is inconsistent.
Option B:
Predatory attacks by carnivores are a common occurrence and have steadily increased over the past few
decades.
False Version: Predatory attacks by carnivores are a rare occurrence and have steadily increased over the past
few decades.
This is consistent with the passage.
Option C: Carnivores lose their instinctive fear of humans, when consistently exposed to human food sources.
False Version: Carnivores do not lose their instinctive fear of humans, when consistently exposed to human
food sources. -- irrelevant to the passage as the author speaks on reliance on human food and not exposure to
human food "sources".
Option D: Human efforts to avoid risky behaviours around large carnivores have proven effective in reducing
conflict incidents.
False version: Human efforts to avoid risky behaviours around large carnivores have not proven effective in
reducing conflict incidents. -- beyond the scope of the passage.

Option D is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that 66% of coyote attacks involve a dog, which can either provoke a carnivore or
escalate a dangerous situation when the dog chases a carnivore or vice versa. In areas with large carnivores,
unleashing dogs can increase the likelihood of encounters and conflicts. Therefore, option D is the most likely
scenario to exacerbate carnivore-human conflicts.
Why the other options are less likely to exacerbate the conflicts:
Option A: Preventing wild animals from being attracted to human food sources would actually reduce carnivorehuman conflicts by keeping animals from becoming habituated to humans. This would prevent potential issues,

Option B: The passage suggests that climate change could increase the frequency of human-carnivore
encounters due to scarcity of resources. Therefore, addressing climate change would likely help prevent the
issue rather than exacerbate it.
Option C: According to the passage, photographing wild animals in secured viewing areas is not a major driver
of carnivore-human conflicts. Conflicts typically arise from behaviours that encourage animals to approach
humans or interact in risky ways, not from observation in protected zones. Therefore, this is unlikely to
exacerbate conflicts.

Option B is the correct answer.
The demand for spices was not necessarily tied to their availability. The passage states that medieval
Europeans had limited geographical knowledge of where spices came from and were highly prized despite their
relative scarcity. Spices were used for culinary and medicinal purposes, and the demand was driven by cultural
and medical factors rather than availability.
Option A: The passage states that spices were used partly due to the unavailability of refrigeration, and some
spices served as antibacterial agents. With the development of refrigeration techniques, the necessity for
spices to preserve or enhance food properties would diminish, leading to a decline in their appeal.
Option C: The passage mentions how spices were used for medicinal properties in medieval times as part of
humeral balancing. As medical science evolved, such practices would likely fall out of favour, reducing their
significance.
Option D: The passage states that spices played a significant role in medieval cooking, balancing humeral
properties in food. Changes in European tastes or culinary practices would have contributed to a decline in the
demand for spices

Option A is the correct answer.
This is a wrong conclusion because it confuses the physical heat from the harvesting process with the pepper's
actual spiciness. The process of using fire for harvesting could not be related to the spiciness (being hot) of the
pepper.
Option B: The story of snakes and burning trees implies that pepper was difficult and dangerous to harvest,
which could explain why it was costly. This is a reasonable conclusion based on the story.
Option C: Given the danger described in the myth (snakes and burning trees), it's logical that people would
conclude it's not advisable to go to India to harvest pepper themselves. This could be a conclusion from the
story.
Option D: The story suggests that harvesting pepper is difficult and dangerous, which might lead people to think
that the supply is limited. Based on the information provided in the myth, this is a reasonable conclusion.

Option B is the correct answer.
While spices were a major part of European trade with the East, the passage does claim that gold was a
motivation for colonizing India. The main focus of the passage is on spices, not gold. Hence, the conclusion
that India was colonized for both spices and gold cannot be definitively drawn from the passage.
Option A: The passage hints that the desire for spices played a significant role in driving European colonial
expansion. Therefore, this conclusion can be reached from the passage.
Option C: The passage briefly mentions that spices never had the same enduring allure or commercial potential
as gold, silver, tobacco, indigo, or sugar. From this, we can infer that tobacco was more marketable than spices
at certain points in history.
Option D: In the passage, the desire for spices is described as one of the major factors that led to European
colonialism. Therefore, this conclusion could be reached.

Option B is the correct answer.
If white peppercorns were brought to Europe, Europeans would likely doubt the myth of harvesting pepper by
burning trees, as white peppercorns would not be burnt like the black peppercorns described in the story. This
inconsistency would make them question the accuracy of the myth.
Option A: Medieval maps were mentioned as symbolic and inaccurate, making them impractical for navigation.
Traders did not rely on these maps for precise geographical guidance.
Option C: This outcome is unlikely. The passage explains that spices were scarce and expensive; thus, bringing
white pepper would not significantly affect its price, since it remained a rare and highly valued commodity.
Option D: Even if a trader brought white peppercorns, pepper would still be viewed as exotic by Europeans due
to its rarity and the long journey it took to reach Europe. So, this outcome is also unlikely.

Option D is the correct answer.
The passage provides several arguments in favour of making peer review data public, but it does not mention
that making this data public would help in selecting appropriately qualified reviewers for academic writing.
Option A: The passage mentions that openly publishing peer review data could help journals address fraudulent
peer reviews, such as authors using fake email addresses to review their own manuscripts. Therefore, this is a
reason given in favour of making the data public.
Option B: The passage discusses a study showing that women and non-Westerners are underrepresented
among peer reviewers. Publishing peer review data could help highlight these gender and race biases, which is
one of the reasons for making the data public.
Option C: The passage suggests that sharing peer-review data could help journals tackle issues like fraud,
inefficiency, and systemic bias in the publishing process, which is another reason given in favour of making the
data public.

Option D is the correct answer.
This is not mentioned as a reason in the passage. The focus is on staying informed, contributing to the field,
and publicizing their own work, not on expanding influence. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it is the
only reason not mentioned in the passage.

Option A: The passage mentions that some academics review work to "keep abreast with developments in their
field," which aligns with the idea that reviewing helps them stay updated with cutting-edge ideas. This is a valid
reason.
Option B: The passage also mentions that some scientists post their reviews online "mainly to claim credit for
their work," which indicates that some view reviewing as an opportunity to publicize their contributions. This is
a valid reason
Option C: The passage states that some view reviewing as "a duty to the discipline," which is a form of service
to the academic community. Therefore, option C is also a valid reason.

Option D is the correct answer.
The passage discusses the value of making peer-reviewed data public to help address various issues in
academic publishing, such as bias, inefficiency, and fraud. The author advocates for a shift"from opacity in all
cases to opacity only when necessary," implying support for greater transparency in peer review.
Option A: The passage mentions concerns about reviewer selection, such as gender and geographic
imbalances, but it does not suggest that careful screening of content-familiar reviewers is a priority.
Option B: The passage mentioned about maintaining confidentiality, but it does not strongly argue in favour of
preserving anonymity.
Option C: The author does not fully endorse the publication of actual reviews or reviewer identities in every
situation. While the author advocates for sharing peer review data, they also acknowledge that, in some cases,
the content of reviews and reviewers' identities may need to remain confidential.

Let's evaluate the options:
Option A: The passage mentions this concern: "referees may be less critical of manuscripts if their reports are
published, especially if they are revealing their identities by signing them."
Option B: The passage does not mention that one of the reasons to oppose open peer review is to protect
reviewers from unwarranted and unjustified criticism. Instead, the passage discusses the concern that
reviewers may avoid giving critical feedback if their identities and reports are made public, not because they
want to avoid unjust criticism. The key concern is the fear of justified criticism rather than avoiding unjust or
unwarranted criticism.
Option C: The passage mentions that reviewers may be less critical in their reports if they fear their reviews will
be published. This might prevent reviewers from being honest and offering critical assessments, which are
crucial for the integrity of the publishing process.
Option D: Another concern raised in the passage is that reviewers might take longer to submit their reviews if
they know they will be publicly scrutinized. This delay in the review process is seen as a disadvantage of open
peer review.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer because the passage does not mention concerns about leaving
reviewers unexposed to unwarranted criticism.