Previous Year Questions

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Previous Year Questions

    51.

    What best can be concluded about the code for the letter B?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Digits 1 to 8 are mapped to 3 letters each, 9 is mapped to only 2. 
    (3 × 8) + 2 = 26 which is the total number of letters in English. 
    Each letter is mapped to a unique code, but remember that each number is mapped
    to 2323 letters. 
    It is best to start from the small words. Let us attack ‘is’ and ‘as’ first. 
    IS = 35, AS = 56. S = 5 , I = 3 , A = 6. 
    Now, THE is 458. OF = 79. PEACOCK does not have a ‘7’ in in. It has an O but no F, so F should be
    7 and O should be 9. 
    THE has 458, DESIGNATED has T and E but no H. Is there a number in THE but not in
    DESIGNATED? 
    H should be 4. T and E should be 5 and 8 in some order. 
    Now let us look at INDIA. INDIA = 13366. I = 3 and A = 6. So, N and D should be 1 and 6 in some
    order. BIRD has a D, BIRD = 1334. 
    What does this mean? This tells us D = 1 and N = 6. 
    Let us have another look at T and E. T and E and 5 and 8 in some order. Is there a word that has
    only one of T & E but not both? 
    NATIONAL has T but not E. NATIONAL has 8 but not 5. BINGO! We know T has to be 8 and E has
    to be 5. 
    Now let us go word by word. PEACOCK = P56C9CK. So, PCCK should be 8899. 9 is allotted only
    to two numbers. 
    We know that O = 9. So, what can we say about 9? 
    If C takes 8, then both P and K becomes 9 which is not possible as 9 can be assigned to only two letters. 
    Therefore C has to take 9 and P , K takes the value 8. 
    DESIGNATED = 1553G66851. The missing number should be G. Or, G = 7. 
    NATIONAL = 6683966L. The missing number should be L. Or, L should be 1. 
    BIRD = B3R1. 3 and 4 are missing. B and R should be 3 and 4 in some order. 
    B and R occur only once each in this sequence, so there is no way of resolving this. 

    From the above inferences, we can see that B takes either 3 or 4.

    52.

    Who else was in Room 102 when Ganeshan entered?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

        

     

    Look at the statements given by Erina and Ganeshan. 
    Think about the number of candidates in the rooms. 
    One room has only one candidate, one room has 2 candidates, so the third room should have 4
    candidates. 
    So, number of candidates should be distributed as 4, 2, 1. 
    But which room has 2 candidates and which one has 4? 
    Room number 102 has 2 candidates. G plus one more. Balaram was the third one to enter 101, so
    101 should have had at least 3 candidates. 
    This implies 103 has only one candidate. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. What does this mean? Akhil should also be in the same room as
    Fatima.

     

        

     

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. Chitra is the last to enter her room. 
    So, the one at 7:45 should be entering a different room. Who is this?

     

        

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. E should be the one
    who goes at 7:45 am. 
    We have B, D and G remaining. B and D go into 101, G goes to 102. B comes after D as B is the
    third to go into 101. 
    Write down the different combinations.

     

        

     

    7:10, 7:15 and 7:25 could be D, B, G or D, G, B or G, D, B. 
    Let us move on to questions. 
    Ganeshan was the first to enter room 102. Therefore no one was there before Ganeshan entered
    room 102.

    53.

    When did Erina reach the venue?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

        

    Look at the statements given by Erina and Ganeshan. 
    Think about the number of candidates in the rooms. 
    One room has only one candidate, one room has 2 candidates, so the third room should have 4
    candidates. 
    So, number of candidates should be distributed as 4, 2, 1. 
    But which room has 2 candidates and which one has 4? 
    Room number 102 has 2 candidates. G plus one more. Balaram was the third one to enter 101, so
    101 should have had at least 3 candidates. 
    This implies 103 has only one candidate. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. What does this mean? Akhil should also be in the same room as
    Fatima.

        

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. Chitra is the last to enter her room. 
    So, the one at 7:45 should be entering a different room. Who is this?

        

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. E should be the one
    who goes at 7:45 am. 
    We have B, D and G remaining. B and D go into 101, G goes to 102. B comes after D as B is the
    third to go into 101. 
    Write down the different combinations.

        

    7:10, 7:15 and 7:25 could be D, B, G or D, G, B or G, D, B. 
    Let us move on to questions. 
    From the table, we can see that Erina was the last one to reach i.e. at 7:45 am.

    54.

    If Ganeshan entered the venue before Divya, when did Balaram enter the venue?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

        

    Look at the statements given by Erina and Ganeshan. 
    Think about the number of candidates in the rooms. 
    One room has only one candidate, one room has 2 candidates, so the third room should have 4
    candidates. 
    So, number of candidates should be distributed as 4, 2, 1. 
    But which room has 2 candidates and which one has 4? 
    Room number 102 has 2 candidates. G plus one more. Balaram was the third one to enter 101, so
    101 should have had at least 3 candidates. 
    This implies 103 has only one candidate. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. What does this mean? Akhil should also be in the same room as
    Fatima.

        

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. Chitra is the last to enter her room. 
    So, the one at 7:45 should be entering a different room. Who is this?

        

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. E should be the one
    who goes at 7:45 am. 
    We have B, D and G remaining. B and D go into 101, G goes to 102. B comes after D as B is the
    third to go into 101. 
    Write down the different combinations.

        

     

    7:10, 7:15 and 7:25 could be D, B, G or D, G, B or G, D, B. 
    Let us move on to questions. 
    If Ganeshan entered the venue before Divya, we are looking at possibility 3 from the table. 
    Therefore Balaram entered the venue at 7:25 am

    55.

    Job Interview

    Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.

    CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2     

    Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
    Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
    Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
    Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
    Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
    Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.

     

    51.

    What best can be said about the room to which Divya was allotted?

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

        

    Look at the statements given by Erina and Ganeshan. 
    Think about the number of candidates in the rooms. 
    One room has only one candidate, one room has 2 candidates, so the third room should have 4
    candidates. 
    So, number of candidates should be distributed as 4, 2, 1. 
    But which room has 2 candidates and which one has 4? 
    Room number 102 has 2 candidates. G plus one more. Balaram was the third one to enter 101, so
    101 should have had at least 3 candidates. 
    This implies 103 has only one candidate. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. What does this mean? Akhil should also be in the same room as
    Fatima.

        

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. Chitra is the last to enter her room. 
    So, the one at 7:45 should be entering a different room. Who is this?

        

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. E should be the one
    who goes at 7:45 am. 
    We have B, D and G remaining. B and D go into 101, G goes to 102. B comes after D as B is the
    third to go into 101. 
    Write down the different combinations.

        

    7:10, 7:15 and 7:25 could be D, B, G or D, G, B or G, D, B. 
    Let us move on to questions. 
    From the above table, we can see that Divya is definitely in room 101.

    52.

    Who else was in Room 102 when Ganeshan entered?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

        

     

    Look at the statements given by Erina and Ganeshan. 
    Think about the number of candidates in the rooms. 
    One room has only one candidate, one room has 2 candidates, so the third room should have 4
    candidates. 
    So, number of candidates should be distributed as 4, 2, 1. 
    But which room has 2 candidates and which one has 4? 
    Room number 102 has 2 candidates. G plus one more. Balaram was the third one to enter 101, so
    101 should have had at least 3 candidates. 
    This implies 103 has only one candidate. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. What does this mean? Akhil should also be in the same room as
    Fatima.

     

        

     

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. Chitra is the last to enter her room. 
    So, the one at 7:45 should be entering a different room. Who is this?

     

        

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. E should be the one
    who goes at 7:45 am. 
    We have B, D and G remaining. B and D go into 101, G goes to 102. B comes after D as B is the
    third to go into 101. 
    Write down the different combinations.

     

        

     

    7:10, 7:15 and 7:25 could be D, B, G or D, G, B or G, D, B. 
    Let us move on to questions. 
    Ganeshan was the first to enter room 102. Therefore no one was there before Ganeshan entered
    room 102.

    53.

    When did Erina reach the venue?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

        

    Look at the statements given by Erina and Ganeshan. 
    Think about the number of candidates in the rooms. 
    One room has only one candidate, one room has 2 candidates, so the third room should have 4
    candidates. 
    So, number of candidates should be distributed as 4, 2, 1. 
    But which room has 2 candidates and which one has 4? 
    Room number 102 has 2 candidates. G plus one more. Balaram was the third one to enter 101, so
    101 should have had at least 3 candidates. 
    This implies 103 has only one candidate. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. What does this mean? Akhil should also be in the same room as
    Fatima.

        

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. Chitra is the last to enter her room. 
    So, the one at 7:45 should be entering a different room. Who is this?

        

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. E should be the one
    who goes at 7:45 am. 
    We have B, D and G remaining. B and D go into 101, G goes to 102. B comes after D as B is the
    third to go into 101. 
    Write down the different combinations.

        

    7:10, 7:15 and 7:25 could be D, B, G or D, G, B or G, D, B. 
    Let us move on to questions. 
    From the table, we can see that Erina was the last one to reach i.e. at 7:45 am.

    54.

    If Ganeshan entered the venue before Divya, when did Balaram enter the venue?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

        

    Look at the statements given by Erina and Ganeshan. 
    Think about the number of candidates in the rooms. 
    One room has only one candidate, one room has 2 candidates, so the third room should have 4
    candidates. 
    So, number of candidates should be distributed as 4, 2, 1. 
    But which room has 2 candidates and which one has 4? 
    Room number 102 has 2 candidates. G plus one more. Balaram was the third one to enter 101, so
    101 should have had at least 3 candidates. 
    This implies 103 has only one candidate. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. What does this mean? Akhil should also be in the same room as
    Fatima.

        

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. Chitra is the last to enter her room. 
    So, the one at 7:45 should be entering a different room. Who is this?

        

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. E should be the one
    who goes at 7:45 am. 
    We have B, D and G remaining. B and D go into 101, G goes to 102. B comes after D as B is the
    third to go into 101. 
    Write down the different combinations.

        

     

    7:10, 7:15 and 7:25 could be D, B, G or D, G, B or G, D, B. 
    Let us move on to questions. 
    If Ganeshan entered the venue before Divya, we are looking at possibility 3 from the table. 
    Therefore Balaram entered the venue at 7:25 am

    56.

    What best can be said about the room to which Divya was allotted?

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

        

    Look at the statements given by Erina and Ganeshan. 
    Think about the number of candidates in the rooms. 
    One room has only one candidate, one room has 2 candidates, so the third room should have 4
    candidates. 
    So, number of candidates should be distributed as 4, 2, 1. 
    But which room has 2 candidates and which one has 4? 
    Room number 102 has 2 candidates. G plus one more. Balaram was the third one to enter 101, so
    101 should have had at least 3 candidates. 
    This implies 103 has only one candidate. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. What does this mean? Akhil should also be in the same room as
    Fatima.

        

     

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. 
    Fatima is the 4th one into a room. Chitra is the last to enter her room. 
    So, the one at 7:45 should be entering a different room. Who is this?

        

    A, B and F go to room number 101. C should go to 102, E should go to 103. E should be the one
    who goes at 7:45 am. 
    We have B, D and G remaining. B and D go into 101, G goes to 102. B comes after D as B is the
    third to go into 101. 
    Write down the different combinations.

        

    7:10, 7:15 and 7:25 could be D, B, G or D, G, B or G, D, B. 
    Let us move on to questions. 
    From the above table, we can see that Divya is definitely in room 101.

    57.

    If the number of Old visitors buying Gold tickets was strictly greater than the number of Young visitors buying Gold tickets, then the number Middle-aged visitors buying Gold tickets was [TITA]

    Answer : A

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From second constraint, 
    OLD Visitors = x, MID = 2x, Young = 4x. 
    7x = 140 or, x = 20 , 2x = 40 , 4x = 80. 
    Let us fill this in. and then go to constraint 3 and 4.

    From constraint 3, Total Platinum = 2y, then YNG platinum should be y. 
    From constraint 4, Let us fill OLD-GOLD and OLD-ECO has z.

    OLD-GOLD > YNG-GOLD. 
    Z > 42 – y Or, y + z > 42 
    We need to find MID-GOLD. This is equal to 85 – 2y – z – (42 – y) = 43 – (y + z). 
    We know that y + z > 42. So, MID-GOLD has to be 0.

    58.

    If the number of Old visitors buying Platinum tickets was equal to the number of Middle-aged visitors buying Economy tickets, then the number of Old visitors buying Gold tickets was [TITA]

    Answer : 3

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From second constraint, 
    OLD Visitors = x, MID = 2x, Young = 4x. 
    7x = 140 or, x = 20 , 2x = 40 , 4x = 80. 
    Let us fill this in. and then go to constraint 3 and 4.

    From constraint 3, Total Platinum = 2y, then YNG platinum should be y. 
    From constraint 4, Let us fill OLD-GOLD and OLD-ECO has z.

    OLD-PT = MID-ECO. MID-ECO = 17 – z or, OLD-PT = 17 – z. 
    17 – z = - 20 – 2z. Or, z = 3.

    59.

    Which of the following statements MUST be FALSE?

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From second constraint, 
    OLD Visitors = x, MID = 2x, Young = 4x. 
    7x = 140 or, x = 20 , 2x = 40 , 4x = 80. 
    Let us fill this in. and then go to constraint 3 and 4.

    From constraint 3, Total Platinum = 2y, then YNG platinum should be y. 
    From constraint 4, Let us fill OLD-GOLD and OLD-ECO has z.

    Let us go statement-by-statement and see if we can find some easy one that HAS to be FALSE. 
    (A) The numbers of Gold and Platinum tickets bought by Young visitors were equal. 
    YNG-PT = YNG-GOLD. These two should add up to 42. Or, both should be 21. Total PT should be
    42. Total GOLD should be 43. 
    All of these appear to be possible. Let us look at the other choices and see if we can find an easier
    CLEARLY FALSE statement. 
    Else, we will revisit this.

    (B) The numbers of Middle-aged and Young visitors buying Gold tickets were equal. 
    MID-GOLD = YNG-GOLD. MID-GOLD should also be 42 – y. This tells us that z should be 1. This
    also appears prima-facie possible. 
    Let us look at the others also before we revisit this one and completely fill the grid.

    (C) The numbers of Old and Middle-aged visitors buying Economy tickets were equal. 
    OLD-ECO = MID-ECO.These two should add up to 17 so these two CANNOT be equal. 
    So, statement C is DEFINITELY FALSE. 
    (D) The numbers of Old and Middle-aged visitors buying Platinum tickets were equal. 
    OLD-PT = MID-PT. Both of these should be y2𝑦2. This also appears to be alright.

    60.

    Amusement Park Tickets

    Each visitor to an amusement park needs to buy a ticket. Tickets can be Platinum, Gold, or Economy. Visitors are classified as Old, Middle-aged, or Young. The following facts are known about visitors and ticket sales on a particular day:
    1. 140 tickets were sold.
    2. The number of Middle-aged visitors was twice the number of Old visitors, while the number of Young visitors was twice the number of Middle-aged visitors.
    3. Young visitors bought 38 of the 55 Economy tickets that were sold, and they bought half the total number of Platinum tickets that were sold.
    4. The number of Gold tickets bought by Old visitors was equal to the number of Economy tickets bought by Old visitors.

     

     

    51.

    If the number of Old visitors buying Platinum tickets was equal to the number of Middle-aged visitors buying Platinum tickets, then which among the following could be the total number of Platinum tickets sold?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From second constraint, 
    OLD Visitors = x, MID = 2x, Young = 4x. 
    7x = 140 or, x = 20 , 2x = 40 , 4x = 80. 
    Let us fill this in. and then go to constraint 3 and 4.

    From constraint 3, Total Platinum = 2y, then YNG platinum should be y. 
    From constraint 4, Let us fill OLD-GOLD and OLD-ECO has z.

    OLD-PT should be equal to MID-PT, OLD-PT and MID-PT add up to y. 
    So, each should be y2𝑦2. Now, we know that y2𝑦2 = 20 – 2z. 
    Total number of PT seats = 2y = 4 (20 – 2z) = 8 (10 – z). So, this number should be a multiple of 8. 
    The only possible answer is 32

     

    52.

    If the number of Old visitors buying Gold tickets was strictly greater than the number of Young visitors buying Gold tickets, then the number Middle-aged visitors buying Gold tickets was [TITA]

    Answer : A

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From second constraint, 
    OLD Visitors = x, MID = 2x, Young = 4x. 
    7x = 140 or, x = 20 , 2x = 40 , 4x = 80. 
    Let us fill this in. and then go to constraint 3 and 4.

    From constraint 3, Total Platinum = 2y, then YNG platinum should be y. 
    From constraint 4, Let us fill OLD-GOLD and OLD-ECO has z.

    OLD-GOLD > YNG-GOLD. 
    Z > 42 – y Or, y + z > 42 
    We need to find MID-GOLD. This is equal to 85 – 2y – z – (42 – y) = 43 – (y + z). 
    We know that y + z > 42. So, MID-GOLD has to be 0.

    53.

    If the number of Old visitors buying Platinum tickets was equal to the number of Middle-aged visitors buying Economy tickets, then the number of Old visitors buying Gold tickets was [TITA]

    Answer : 3

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From second constraint, 
    OLD Visitors = x, MID = 2x, Young = 4x. 
    7x = 140 or, x = 20 , 2x = 40 , 4x = 80. 
    Let us fill this in. and then go to constraint 3 and 4.

    From constraint 3, Total Platinum = 2y, then YNG platinum should be y. 
    From constraint 4, Let us fill OLD-GOLD and OLD-ECO has z.

    OLD-PT = MID-ECO. MID-ECO = 17 – z or, OLD-PT = 17 – z. 
    17 – z = - 20 – 2z. Or, z = 3.

    54.

    Which of the following statements MUST be FALSE?

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From second constraint, 
    OLD Visitors = x, MID = 2x, Young = 4x. 
    7x = 140 or, x = 20 , 2x = 40 , 4x = 80. 
    Let us fill this in. and then go to constraint 3 and 4.

    From constraint 3, Total Platinum = 2y, then YNG platinum should be y. 
    From constraint 4, Let us fill OLD-GOLD and OLD-ECO has z.

    Let us go statement-by-statement and see if we can find some easy one that HAS to be FALSE. 
    (A) The numbers of Gold and Platinum tickets bought by Young visitors were equal. 
    YNG-PT = YNG-GOLD. These two should add up to 42. Or, both should be 21. Total PT should be
    42. Total GOLD should be 43. 
    All of these appear to be possible. Let us look at the other choices and see if we can find an easier
    CLEARLY FALSE statement. 
    Else, we will revisit this.

    (B) The numbers of Middle-aged and Young visitors buying Gold tickets were equal. 
    MID-GOLD = YNG-GOLD. MID-GOLD should also be 42 – y. This tells us that z should be 1. This
    also appears prima-facie possible. 
    Let us look at the others also before we revisit this one and completely fill the grid.

    (C) The numbers of Old and Middle-aged visitors buying Economy tickets were equal. 
    OLD-ECO = MID-ECO.These two should add up to 17 so these two CANNOT be equal. 
    So, statement C is DEFINITELY FALSE. 
    (D) The numbers of Old and Middle-aged visitors buying Platinum tickets were equal. 
    OLD-PT = MID-PT. Both of these should be y2𝑦2. This also appears to be alright.

    61.

    If the number of Old visitors buying Platinum tickets was equal to the number of Middle-aged visitors buying Platinum tickets, then which among the following could be the total number of Platinum tickets sold?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From second constraint, 
    OLD Visitors = x, MID = 2x, Young = 4x. 
    7x = 140 or, x = 20 , 2x = 40 , 4x = 80. 
    Let us fill this in. and then go to constraint 3 and 4.

    From constraint 3, Total Platinum = 2y, then YNG platinum should be y. 
    From constraint 4, Let us fill OLD-GOLD and OLD-ECO has z.

    OLD-PT should be equal to MID-PT, OLD-PT and MID-PT add up to y. 
    So, each should be y2𝑦2. Now, we know that y2𝑦2 = 20 – 2z. 
    Total number of PT seats = 2y = 4 (20 – 2z) = 8 (10 – z). So, this number should be a multiple of 8. 
    The only possible answer is 32

     

    62.

    Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out
    of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below

        

    From condition 1, Alfa and Bravo should have 2 each, Charlie should have 3. 
    From condition 2, Bravo = 1, Charlie = 2, Alfa = 3. 
    From condition 3, Alfa = Bravo = Charlie = 1. 
    From condition 4, Alpha = 4, Bravo = 3, Charlie = 0. 
    Let us capture this differently and then take it from there. 

    From condition 5, The big free square is Bravo. 
    From condition 6, The big free square is Charlie. 
    From condition 7, Charlie has rectangle and Square. 
    From condition 8, Chances are the big square in Promising is Charlie’s. 
    A) Alfa Block Buster revenues = 9 squares. Charlie Promising Revenues = 9 square units. This is
    correct. 
    B) Bravo Blockbuster = 10 squares, Alfa doubtful = 12 squares.This is not correct. 
    C) No-Hope = 15 squares, Doubtful = 29 squares. This is correct. 
    D) Given in the question. This is correct.

    63.

    If the smallest box on the grid is equivalent to revenue of Rs.1 crore, then what approximately was the total revenue of Bravo in Rs. crore?

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out
    of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below

        

    From condition 1, Alfa and Bravo should have 2 each, Charlie should have 3. 
    From condition 2, Bravo = 1, Charlie = 2, Alfa = 3. 
    From condition 3, Alfa = Bravo = Charlie = 1. 
    From condition 4, Alpha = 4, Bravo = 3, Charlie = 0. 
    Let us capture this differently and then take it from there. 

    From condition 5, The big free square is Bravo. 
    From condition 6, The big free square is Charlie. 

    From condition 7, Charlie has rectangle and Square. 
    From condition 8, Chances are the big square in Promising is Charlie’s. 
    Bravo’s revenues are from 7 companies. 
    In No-hope, the revenues should be Rs. 4 Crores. 
    In Blockbuster, the revenues should be 4 + 6 = Rs. 10 Crores. 
    In Promising, the revenues should be Rs. 2 Crores.(this could be 3) 
    In Doubtful, the revenues should be 9 + 6 + 2 = Rs. 17 Crores. 
    This adds up to Rs. 33 crores. 
    The answer choice should be C. 

    64.

    Products and Companies

    Each of the 23 boxes in the picture below represents a product manufactured by one of the following three companies: Alfa, Bravo and Charlie. The area of a box is proportional to the revenue from the corresponding product, while its centre represents the Product popularity and Market potential scores of the product (out of 20). The shadings of some of the boxes have got erased.

    CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below:

    CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

    The following facts are known:
    1. Alfa and Bravo had the same number of products in the Blockbuster category.
    2. Charlie had more products than Bravo but fewer products than Alfa in the No-hope category.
    3. Each company had an equal number of products in the Promising category.
    4. Charlie did not have any product in the Doubtful category, while Alfa had one product more than Bravo in this category.
    5. Bravo had a higher revenue than Alfa from products in the Doubtful category.
    6. Charlie had a higher revenue than Bravo from products in the Blockbuster category.
    7. Bravo and Charlie had the same revenue from products in the No-hope category.
    8. Alfa and Charlie had the same total revenue considering all products.

     

    51.

    Considering all companies products, which product category had the highest revenue?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out
    of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below

        

    From condition 1, Alfa and Bravo should have 2 each, Charlie should have 3. 
    From condition 2, Bravo = 1, Charlie = 2, Alfa = 3. 
    From condition 3, Alfa = Bravo = Charlie = 1. 
    From condition 4, Alpha = 4, Bravo = 3, Charlie = 0. 
    Let us capture this differently and then take it from there. 

    From condition 5, The big free square is Bravo. 
    From condition 6, The big free square is Charlie. 
    From condition 7, Charlie has rectangle and Square. 
    From condition 8, Chances are the big square in Promising is Charlie’s. 
    It is between Blockbuster and Doubtful. Doubtful has two small squares whereas everything in
    Blockbuster is sizable. Therefore Blockbuster had the highest revenue.

     

    52.

    Which of the following is the correct sequence of numbers of products Bravo had in No-hope, Doubtful, Promising and Blockbuster categories respectively?

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out
    of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below

        

     

    From condition 1, Alfa and Bravo should have 2 each, Charlie should have 3. 
    From condition 2, Bravo = 1, Charlie = 2, Alfa = 3. 
    From condition 3, Alfa = Bravo = Charlie = 1. 
    From condition 4, Alpha = 4, Bravo = 3, Charlie = 0. 
    Let us capture this differently and then take it from there. 

    From condition 5, The big free square is Bravo. 
    From condition 6, The big free square is Charlie. 
    From condition 7, Charlie has rectangle and Square. 
    From condition 8, Chances are the big square in Promising is Charlie’s. 
    From the table we can see that Choice B 1,3,1,2 is the correct sequence of no. of products.

    53.

    Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out
    of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below

        

    From condition 1, Alfa and Bravo should have 2 each, Charlie should have 3. 
    From condition 2, Bravo = 1, Charlie = 2, Alfa = 3. 
    From condition 3, Alfa = Bravo = Charlie = 1. 
    From condition 4, Alpha = 4, Bravo = 3, Charlie = 0. 
    Let us capture this differently and then take it from there. 

    From condition 5, The big free square is Bravo. 
    From condition 6, The big free square is Charlie. 
    From condition 7, Charlie has rectangle and Square. 
    From condition 8, Chances are the big square in Promising is Charlie’s. 
    A) Alfa Block Buster revenues = 9 squares. Charlie Promising Revenues = 9 square units. This is
    correct. 
    B) Bravo Blockbuster = 10 squares, Alfa doubtful = 12 squares.This is not correct. 
    C) No-Hope = 15 squares, Doubtful = 29 squares. This is correct. 
    D) Given in the question. This is correct.

    54.

    If the smallest box on the grid is equivalent to revenue of Rs.1 crore, then what approximately was the total revenue of Bravo in Rs. crore?

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out
    of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below

        

    From condition 1, Alfa and Bravo should have 2 each, Charlie should have 3. 
    From condition 2, Bravo = 1, Charlie = 2, Alfa = 3. 
    From condition 3, Alfa = Bravo = Charlie = 1. 
    From condition 4, Alpha = 4, Bravo = 3, Charlie = 0. 
    Let us capture this differently and then take it from there. 

    From condition 5, The big free square is Bravo. 
    From condition 6, The big free square is Charlie. 

    From condition 7, Charlie has rectangle and Square. 
    From condition 8, Chances are the big square in Promising is Charlie’s. 
    Bravo’s revenues are from 7 companies. 
    In No-hope, the revenues should be Rs. 4 Crores. 
    In Blockbuster, the revenues should be 4 + 6 = Rs. 10 Crores. 
    In Promising, the revenues should be Rs. 2 Crores.(this could be 3) 
    In Doubtful, the revenues should be 9 + 6 + 2 = Rs. 17 Crores. 
    This adds up to Rs. 33 crores. 
    The answer choice should be C. 

    65.

    Considering all companies products, which product category had the highest revenue?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out
    of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below

        

    From condition 1, Alfa and Bravo should have 2 each, Charlie should have 3. 
    From condition 2, Bravo = 1, Charlie = 2, Alfa = 3. 
    From condition 3, Alfa = Bravo = Charlie = 1. 
    From condition 4, Alpha = 4, Bravo = 3, Charlie = 0. 
    Let us capture this differently and then take it from there. 

    From condition 5, The big free square is Bravo. 
    From condition 6, The big free square is Charlie. 
    From condition 7, Charlie has rectangle and Square. 
    From condition 8, Chances are the big square in Promising is Charlie’s. 
    It is between Blockbuster and Doubtful. Doubtful has two small squares whereas everything in
    Blockbuster is sizable. Therefore Blockbuster had the highest revenue.

     

    66.

    Which of the following is the correct sequence of numbers of products Bravo had in No-hope, Doubtful, Promising and Blockbuster categories respectively?

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out
    of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below

        

     

    From condition 1, Alfa and Bravo should have 2 each, Charlie should have 3. 
    From condition 2, Bravo = 1, Charlie = 2, Alfa = 3. 
    From condition 3, Alfa = Bravo = Charlie = 1. 
    From condition 4, Alpha = 4, Bravo = 3, Charlie = 0. 
    Let us capture this differently and then take it from there. 

    From condition 5, The big free square is Bravo. 
    From condition 6, The big free square is Charlie. 
    From condition 7, Charlie has rectangle and Square. 
    From condition 8, Chances are the big square in Promising is Charlie’s. 
    From the table we can see that Choice B 1,3,1,2 is the correct sequence of no. of products.

    67.

    Due to academic pressure, students who were enrolled in all three sports were asked to withdraw from one of the three sports. After the withdrawal, the number of students enrolled in G was six less than the number of students enrolled in L, while the number of students enrolled in K went down by one.After the withdrawal, how many students were enrolled in both G and L?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From condition 3, we get the above diagram

    Condition 6 tells us p – 1 = 7. G-total = 17. G and something else = 10. G-only should be 7.

    From condition 1, we get the above diagram.

    From condition 6, we can get the diagram. 

    From condition 4, we get the above diagram. 

    From condition 5, 
    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    We know that 23 – x > 18 + x. 
    5 > 2x. x < 5252. 
    x could be 0, 1 or 2.

    The other three should have opted out of one or the other of G and L. Let us assume m students
    left G, 3 – m should have left L. 
    Let us rejig the diagram. 
    Total number of students in G = 17 – m. 
    Total number of students in L = 20 + m – x. 
    20 + m – x – (17 – m) = 3 + 2m – x = 6. 
    2m – x = 3. x can only take values 0, 1 and 2. 2m = 3 + x. 
    Or, x has to be 1. m has to be 2. 
    Both G and L = 7 – x = 6.

    68.

    Fun Sports Club

    Fun Sports (FS) provides training in three sports - Gilli-danda (G), Kho-Kho (K), and Ludo (L). Currently it has an enrollment of 39 students each of whom is enrolled in at least one of the three sports. The following details are known:
    1. The number of students enrolled only in L is double the number of students enrolled in all the three sports.
    2. There are a total of 17 students enrolled in G.
    3. The number of students enrolled only in G is one less than the number of students enrolled only in L.
    4. The number of students enrolled only in K is equal to the number of students who are enrolled in both K and L.
    5. The maximum student enrollment is in L.
    6. Ten students enrolled in G are also enrolled in at least one more sport.

     

     

    51.

    What is the minimum number of students enrolled in both G and L but not in K? [TITA]

    Answer : 4

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From condition 3, we get the above diagram

    Condition 6 tells us p – 1 = 7. G-total = 17. G and something else = 10. G-only should be 7.

    From condition 1, we get the above diagram.

    From condition 6, we can get the diagram. 

    From condition 4, we get the above diagram. 

    From condition 5, 
    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    We know that 23 – x > 18 + x. 
    5 > 2x. x < 5252. 
    x could be 0, 1 or 2.

    For 6 - x to be minimum, x should be maximum i.e. x should take 2. 
    Therefore the minimum number of students enrolled in both G and L but not in K is 4. 

     

    52.

    If the numbers of students enrolled in K and L are in the ratio 19:22, then what is the number of students enrolled in L?

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From condition 3, we get the above diagram

    Condition 6 tells us p – 1 = 7. G-total = 17. G and something else = 10. G-only should be 7.

    From condition 1, we get the above diagram.

    From condition 6, we can get the diagram. 

    From condition 4, we get the above diagram. 

    From condition 5, 
    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    We know that 23 – x > 18 + x. 
    5 > 2x. x < 5252. 
    x could be 0, 1 or 2.

    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    Ratio of K : L = 19 : 22. or, x = 1. 
    Or, number of students in L = 22.

    53.

    Due to academic pressure, students who were enrolled in all three sports were asked to withdraw from one of the three sports. After the withdrawal, the number of students enrolled in G was six less than the number of students enrolled in L, while the number of students enrolled in K went down by one.After the withdrawal, how many students were enrolled in both G and K? [TITA]

    Answer : 2

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From condition 3, we get the above diagram

    Condition 6 tells us p – 1 = 7. G-total = 17. G and something else = 10. G-only should be 7.

    From condition 1, we get the above diagram.

    From condition 6, we can get the diagram. 

    From condition 4, we get the above diagram. 

    From condition 5, 
    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    We know that 23 – x > 18 + x. 
    5 > 2x. x < 5252. 
    x could be 0, 1 or 2.

    We know that G ∩ K ∩ L = 0. We know that the 4 that were originally here are distributed among
    the three regions currently having x, 6 – x and 5. 
    We know that one student leaves K. So, this student should have gone to the region (G and L but
    not K). 
    Or, (G and L but not K) will now read 7 – x. 
    The other three should have opted out of one or the other of G and L. Let us assume m students
    left G, 3 – m should have left L. 
    Let us rejig the diagram. 
    Total number of students in G = 17 – m. 
    Total number of students in L = 20 + m – x. 
    20 + m – x – (17 – m) = 3 + 2m – x = 6. 
    2m – x = 3. x can only take values 0, 1 and 2. 2m = 3 + x. 
    Or, x has to be 1. m has to be 2. 
    Both G and K = 3 + x – m. 3 + 1 -2 = 2.

    54.

    Due to academic pressure, students who were enrolled in all three sports were asked to withdraw from one of the three sports. After the withdrawal, the number of students enrolled in G was six less than the number of students enrolled in L, while the number of students enrolled in K went down by one.After the withdrawal, how many students were enrolled in both G and L?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From condition 3, we get the above diagram

    Condition 6 tells us p – 1 = 7. G-total = 17. G and something else = 10. G-only should be 7.

    From condition 1, we get the above diagram.

    From condition 6, we can get the diagram. 

    From condition 4, we get the above diagram. 

    From condition 5, 
    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    We know that 23 – x > 18 + x. 
    5 > 2x. x < 5252. 
    x could be 0, 1 or 2.

    The other three should have opted out of one or the other of G and L. Let us assume m students
    left G, 3 – m should have left L. 
    Let us rejig the diagram. 
    Total number of students in G = 17 – m. 
    Total number of students in L = 20 + m – x. 
    20 + m – x – (17 – m) = 3 + 2m – x = 6. 
    2m – x = 3. x can only take values 0, 1 and 2. 2m = 3 + x. 
    Or, x has to be 1. m has to be 2. 
    Both G and L = 7 – x = 6.

    69.

    What is the minimum number of students enrolled in both G and L but not in K? [TITA]

    Answer : 4

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From condition 3, we get the above diagram

    Condition 6 tells us p – 1 = 7. G-total = 17. G and something else = 10. G-only should be 7.

    From condition 1, we get the above diagram.

    From condition 6, we can get the diagram. 

    From condition 4, we get the above diagram. 

    From condition 5, 
    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    We know that 23 – x > 18 + x. 
    5 > 2x. x < 5252. 
    x could be 0, 1 or 2.

    For 6 - x to be minimum, x should be maximum i.e. x should take 2. 
    Therefore the minimum number of students enrolled in both G and L but not in K is 4. 

     

    70.

    If the numbers of students enrolled in K and L are in the ratio 19:22, then what is the number of students enrolled in L?

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From condition 3, we get the above diagram

    Condition 6 tells us p – 1 = 7. G-total = 17. G and something else = 10. G-only should be 7.

    From condition 1, we get the above diagram.

    From condition 6, we can get the diagram. 

    From condition 4, we get the above diagram. 

    From condition 5, 
    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    We know that 23 – x > 18 + x. 
    5 > 2x. x < 5252. 
    x could be 0, 1 or 2.

    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    Ratio of K : L = 19 : 22. or, x = 1. 
    Or, number of students in L = 22.

    71.

    Due to academic pressure, students who were enrolled in all three sports were asked to withdraw from one of the three sports. After the withdrawal, the number of students enrolled in G was six less than the number of students enrolled in L, while the number of students enrolled in K went down by one.After the withdrawal, how many students were enrolled in both G and K? [TITA]

    Answer : 2

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From condition 3, we get the above diagram

    Condition 6 tells us p – 1 = 7. G-total = 17. G and something else = 10. G-only should be 7.

    From condition 1, we get the above diagram.

    From condition 6, we can get the diagram. 

    From condition 4, we get the above diagram. 

    From condition 5, 
    Number of students in L = 4 + 5 + 8 + 6 – x = 23- x. 
    Number of students in K = 4 + 5 + 9 + x = 18 + x. 
    We know that 23 – x > 18 + x. 
    5 > 2x. x < 5252. 
    x could be 0, 1 or 2.

    We know that G ∩ K ∩ L = 0. We know that the 4 that were originally here are distributed among
    the three regions currently having x, 6 – x and 5. 
    We know that one student leaves K. So, this student should have gone to the region (G and L but
    not K). 
    Or, (G and L but not K) will now read 7 – x. 
    The other three should have opted out of one or the other of G and L. Let us assume m students
    left G, 3 – m should have left L. 
    Let us rejig the diagram. 
    Total number of students in G = 17 – m. 
    Total number of students in L = 20 + m – x. 
    20 + m – x – (17 – m) = 3 + 2m – x = 6. 
    2m – x = 3. x can only take values 0, 1 and 2. 2m = 3 + x. 
    Or, x has to be 1. m has to be 2. 
    Both G and K = 3 + x – m. 3 + 1 -2 = 2.

    72.

    The complete list of brands whose profits went up in 2017 from 2016 is:

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From the above table, we can see that the profits of Azra, Bysi, Dipq went up in 2017 from 2016.

    73.

    Smartphones

    There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:

     

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    In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 as they were in 2016.

     

     

    51.

    The brand that had the highest revenue in 2016 is:

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From the above table, we can see that Azra had the highest revenue in 2016. 

    52.

    The brand that had the highest profit in 2016 is:

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From the above table, we can see that Cxqi had the highest profit in 2016.

    53.

    The brand that had the highest profit in 2017 is:

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From the above table, we can see that Bysi had the highest profit in 2017. 

    54.

    The complete list of brands whose profits went up in 2017 from 2016 is:

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From the above table, we can see that the profits of Azra, Bysi, Dipq went up in 2017 from 2016.

    74.

    The brand that had the highest revenue in 2016 is:

    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From the above table, we can see that Azra had the highest revenue in 2016. 

    75.

    The brand that had the highest profit in 2016 is:

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From the above table, we can see that Cxqi had the highest profit in 2016.

    76.

    The brand that had the highest profit in 2017 is:

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    From the above table, we can see that Bysi had the highest profit in 2017. 

    77.

    What is the highest overall score among the eight colleges? [TITA]

    Answer : 48

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let us look at this one at a time. Statement 1 does not give us clear comparables, let us start with
    statement 2.

    Ratings in F and P are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for R > Weightage for I. 
    R > I. 

    Now, let us move to statement 3.

    Ratings in F and R are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for I > Weightage for P. 
    I > P. 
    Now, let us combine these two inferences – we get R > I > P.

    Now, let us look at Statement 1. 
    Scores in P are identical. Best Ed has gotten better scores in F and R and a worse score in I. 
    Further Best Ed has gotten better score by one grade in F and R, but worse score by two grades
    in I. 
    So, Best Ed’s better score in two grades is more than offset by High Q’s better score in one
    parameter. 

    High Q is -1 in F and R, but +2 in I. We know that weightage given for R > I. 
    So, the -1 in R has a great impact, so the -1 in F should have much lower impact. 
    In other words, weightage for F should be small and that for I should be high. 

    Let us account for R > I > P first. 
    Of the 4 possibilities, we can easily eliminate the last one as F cannot be 0.4. 
    F cannot be 0.3 either, so the 3rd one can also be eliminated.

    Even if F were 0.2, High Q would not be higher than Best End – the two scores would be equal. 
    So, the weightages have to be F = 0.1, R = 0.4, P = 0.2 and I = 0.3. 
    So, the weightages are as follows.

    From the above table, we can see that the highest overall score among the eight colleges is 48.

    78.

    How many colleges have overall scores between 31 and 40, both inclusive?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let us look at this one at a time. Statement 1 does not give us clear comparables, let us start with
    statement 2.

    Ratings in F and P are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for R > Weightage for I. 
    R > I. 

    Now, let us move to statement 3.

    Ratings in F and R are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for I > Weightage for P. 
    I > P. 
    Now, let us combine these two inferences – we get R > I > P.

    Now, let us look at Statement 1. 
    Scores in P are identical. Best Ed has gotten better scores in F and R and a worse score in I. 
    Further Best Ed has gotten better score by one grade in F and R, but worse score by two grades
    in I. 
    So, Best Ed’s better score in two grades is more than offset by High Q’s better score in one
    parameter. 

    High Q is -1 in F and R, but +2 in I. We know that weightage given for R > I. 
    So, the -1 in R has a great impact, so the -1 in F should have much lower impact. 
    In other words, weightage for F should be small and that for I should be high. 

    Let us account for R > I > P first. 
    Of the 4 possibilities, we can easily eliminate the last one as F cannot be 0.4. 
    F cannot be 0.3 either, so the 3rd one can also be eliminated.

    Even if F were 0.2, High Q would not be higher than Best End – the two scores would be equal. 
    So, the weightages have to be F = 0.1, R = 0.4, P = 0.2 and I = 0.3. 
    So, the weightages are as follows.

    From the above table, we can see that the number of colleges which have overall scores between
    31 and 40 both inclusive is 0.

    79.

    College Accreditation

    An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.

    Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:

    CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

    Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):

    CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

    It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
    1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
    2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
    3. Education Aid is better than A-one.

     

     

    51.

    What is the weight of the faculty quality parameter?

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let us look at this one at a time. Statement 1 does not give us clear comparables, let us start with
    statement 2.

    Ratings in F and P are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for R > Weightage for I. 
    R > I. 

    Now, let us move to statement 3.

    Ratings in F and R are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for I > Weightage for P. 
    I > P. 
    Now, let us combine these two inferences – we get R > I > P.

    Now, let us look at Statement 1. 
    Scores in P are identical. Best Ed has gotten better scores in F and R and a worse score in I. 
    Further Best Ed has gotten better score by one grade in F and R, but worse score by two grades
    in I. 
    So, Best Ed’s better score in two grades is more than offset by High Q’s better score in one
    parameter. 

    High Q is -1 in F and R, but +2 in I. We know that weightage given for R > I. 
    So, the -1 in R has a great impact, so the -1 in F should have much lower impact. 
    In other words, weightage for F should be small and that for I should be high. 

    Let us account for R > I > P first. 
    Of the 4 possibilities, we can easily eliminate the last one as F cannot be 0.4. 
    F cannot be 0.3 either, so the 3rd one can also be eliminated.

    Even if F were 0.2, High Q would not be higher than Best End – the two scores would be equal. 
    So, the weightages have to be F = 0.1, R = 0.4, P = 0.2 and I = 0.3. 
    So, the weightages are as follows.

    From the above table, we can see that the weight of the faculty quality parameter is 0.1.

    52.

    How many colleges receive the accreditation of AAA? [TITA]

    Answer : 3

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let us look at this one at a time. Statement 1 does not give us clear comparables, let us start with
    statement 2.

    Ratings in F and P are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for R > Weightage for I. 
    R > I. 

    Now, let us move to statement 3.

    Ratings in F and R are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for I > Weightage for P. 
    I > P. 
    Now, let us combine these two inferences – we get R > I > P.

    Now, let us look at Statement 1. 
    Scores in P are identical. Best Ed has gotten better scores in F and R and a worse score in I. 
    Further Best Ed has gotten better score by one grade in F and R, but worse score by two grades
    in I. 
    So, Best Ed’s better score in two grades is more than offset by High Q’s better score in one
    parameter. 

    High Q is -1 in F and R, but +2 in I. We know that weightage given for R > I. 
    So, the -1 in R has a great impact, so the -1 in F should have much lower impact. 
    In other words, weightage for F should be small and that for I should be high. 

    Let us account for R > I > P first. 
    Of the 4 possibilities, we can easily eliminate the last one as F cannot be 0.4. 
    F cannot be 0.3 either, so the 3rd one can also be eliminated.

    Even if F were 0.2, High Q would not be higher than Best End – the two scores would be equal. 
    So, the weightages have to be F = 0.1, R = 0.4, P = 0.2 and I = 0.3. 
    So, the weightages are as follows.

    From the above table, we can see that the number of colleges which received AAA accredditation
    is 3. 

    53.

    What is the highest overall score among the eight colleges? [TITA]

    Answer : 48

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let us look at this one at a time. Statement 1 does not give us clear comparables, let us start with
    statement 2.

    Ratings in F and P are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for R > Weightage for I. 
    R > I. 

    Now, let us move to statement 3.

    Ratings in F and R are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for I > Weightage for P. 
    I > P. 
    Now, let us combine these two inferences – we get R > I > P.

    Now, let us look at Statement 1. 
    Scores in P are identical. Best Ed has gotten better scores in F and R and a worse score in I. 
    Further Best Ed has gotten better score by one grade in F and R, but worse score by two grades
    in I. 
    So, Best Ed’s better score in two grades is more than offset by High Q’s better score in one
    parameter. 

    High Q is -1 in F and R, but +2 in I. We know that weightage given for R > I. 
    So, the -1 in R has a great impact, so the -1 in F should have much lower impact. 
    In other words, weightage for F should be small and that for I should be high. 

    Let us account for R > I > P first. 
    Of the 4 possibilities, we can easily eliminate the last one as F cannot be 0.4. 
    F cannot be 0.3 either, so the 3rd one can also be eliminated.

    Even if F were 0.2, High Q would not be higher than Best End – the two scores would be equal. 
    So, the weightages have to be F = 0.1, R = 0.4, P = 0.2 and I = 0.3. 
    So, the weightages are as follows.

    From the above table, we can see that the highest overall score among the eight colleges is 48.

    54.

    How many colleges have overall scores between 31 and 40, both inclusive?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let us look at this one at a time. Statement 1 does not give us clear comparables, let us start with
    statement 2.

    Ratings in F and P are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for R > Weightage for I. 
    R > I. 

    Now, let us move to statement 3.

    Ratings in F and R are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for I > Weightage for P. 
    I > P. 
    Now, let us combine these two inferences – we get R > I > P.

    Now, let us look at Statement 1. 
    Scores in P are identical. Best Ed has gotten better scores in F and R and a worse score in I. 
    Further Best Ed has gotten better score by one grade in F and R, but worse score by two grades
    in I. 
    So, Best Ed’s better score in two grades is more than offset by High Q’s better score in one
    parameter. 

    High Q is -1 in F and R, but +2 in I. We know that weightage given for R > I. 
    So, the -1 in R has a great impact, so the -1 in F should have much lower impact. 
    In other words, weightage for F should be small and that for I should be high. 

    Let us account for R > I > P first. 
    Of the 4 possibilities, we can easily eliminate the last one as F cannot be 0.4. 
    F cannot be 0.3 either, so the 3rd one can also be eliminated.

    Even if F were 0.2, High Q would not be higher than Best End – the two scores would be equal. 
    So, the weightages have to be F = 0.1, R = 0.4, P = 0.2 and I = 0.3. 
    So, the weightages are as follows.

    From the above table, we can see that the number of colleges which have overall scores between
    31 and 40 both inclusive is 0.

    80.

    What is the weight of the faculty quality parameter?

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let us look at this one at a time. Statement 1 does not give us clear comparables, let us start with
    statement 2.

    Ratings in F and P are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for R > Weightage for I. 
    R > I. 

    Now, let us move to statement 3.

    Ratings in F and R are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for I > Weightage for P. 
    I > P. 
    Now, let us combine these two inferences – we get R > I > P.

    Now, let us look at Statement 1. 
    Scores in P are identical. Best Ed has gotten better scores in F and R and a worse score in I. 
    Further Best Ed has gotten better score by one grade in F and R, but worse score by two grades
    in I. 
    So, Best Ed’s better score in two grades is more than offset by High Q’s better score in one
    parameter. 

    High Q is -1 in F and R, but +2 in I. We know that weightage given for R > I. 
    So, the -1 in R has a great impact, so the -1 in F should have much lower impact. 
    In other words, weightage for F should be small and that for I should be high. 

    Let us account for R > I > P first. 
    Of the 4 possibilities, we can easily eliminate the last one as F cannot be 0.4. 
    F cannot be 0.3 either, so the 3rd one can also be eliminated.

    Even if F were 0.2, High Q would not be higher than Best End – the two scores would be equal. 
    So, the weightages have to be F = 0.1, R = 0.4, P = 0.2 and I = 0.3. 
    So, the weightages are as follows.

    From the above table, we can see that the weight of the faculty quality parameter is 0.1.

    81.

    How many colleges receive the accreditation of AAA? [TITA]

    Answer : 3

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let us look at this one at a time. Statement 1 does not give us clear comparables, let us start with
    statement 2.

    Ratings in F and P are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for R > Weightage for I. 
    R > I. 

    Now, let us move to statement 3.

    Ratings in F and R are identical, so we can infer that Weightage for I > Weightage for P. 
    I > P. 
    Now, let us combine these two inferences – we get R > I > P.

    Now, let us look at Statement 1. 
    Scores in P are identical. Best Ed has gotten better scores in F and R and a worse score in I. 
    Further Best Ed has gotten better score by one grade in F and R, but worse score by two grades
    in I. 
    So, Best Ed’s better score in two grades is more than offset by High Q’s better score in one
    parameter. 

    High Q is -1 in F and R, but +2 in I. We know that weightage given for R > I. 
    So, the -1 in R has a great impact, so the -1 in F should have much lower impact. 
    In other words, weightage for F should be small and that for I should be high. 

    Let us account for R > I > P first. 
    Of the 4 possibilities, we can easily eliminate the last one as F cannot be 0.4. 
    F cannot be 0.3 either, so the 3rd one can also be eliminated.

    Even if F were 0.2, High Q would not be higher than Best End – the two scores would be equal. 
    So, the weightages have to be F = 0.1, R = 0.4, P = 0.2 and I = 0.3. 
    So, the weightages are as follows.

    From the above table, we can see that the number of colleges which received AAA accredditation
    is 3. 

    82.

    What is the minimum possible number of different types of prizes? ? 

    Answer : 2

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Minimum possible number is when there is 1 of type a and 99 of type b which is in accordance to the condition

    83.

    What is the maximum possible number of different types of prizes?

    Answer : 6

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Maximum possible number is when 1 of a, 2 of b, 4 of c, 8 of d, 16 of e, 32 of f,

     

    Now left boxes would be 100 – (1+2+…32) = 37

     

    Now if one more type is to be added then we need at least 64 which is not available thus maximum possible is 6.

    84.

    Which of the following is not possible?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let’s try to prove the given options possible using easy numbers.

     

    op1:never possible

     

    op2: 1,30,69 is possible

     

    op3: 1,2,4,18.75 is possible

     

    op4: 1,9,30,60 is possible.

    85.

    You ask for the type of item in box 45. Instead of being given a direct answer, you are told that there are 31 items of the same type as box 45 in boxes 1 to 44 and 43 items of the same type as box 45 in boxes 46 to 100. What is the maximum possible number of different types of items?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    There have to be then at least 31 + `1 + 43 = 75 gifts of same type, Thus maximum possible number of boxes = 5 when all types are lest 1,2,4,18,75

    86.

    A new game show on TV has 100 boxes numbered 1, 2, ....., 100 in a row, each containing a mystery prize. The prizes are items of different types, a, b, c, ....., in decreasing order of value. The most expensive item is of type a, a diamond ring, and there is exactly one of these. You are told that the number of items at least doubles as you move to the next type. For example, there would be at least twice as many items of type b as of type a, at least twice as many items of type c as of type b and so on. There is no particular order in which the prizes are placed in the boxes

    51.

    What is the minimum possible number of different types of prizes? ? 

    Answer : 2

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Minimum possible number is when there is 1 of type a and 99 of type b which is in accordance to the condition

    52.

    What is the maximum possible number of different types of prizes?

    Answer : 6

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Maximum possible number is when 1 of a, 2 of b, 4 of c, 8 of d, 16 of e, 32 of f,

     

    Now left boxes would be 100 – (1+2+…32) = 37

     

    Now if one more type is to be added then we need at least 64 which is not available thus maximum possible is 6.

    53.

    Which of the following is not possible?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    Let’s try to prove the given options possible using easy numbers.

     

    op1:never possible

     

    op2: 1,30,69 is possible

     

    op3: 1,2,4,18.75 is possible

     

    op4: 1,9,30,60 is possible.

    54.

    You ask for the type of item in box 45. Instead of being given a direct answer, you are told that there are 31 items of the same type as box 45 in boxes 1 to 44 and 43 items of the same type as box 45 in boxes 46 to 100. What is the maximum possible number of different types of items?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    There have to be then at least 31 + `1 + 43 = 75 gifts of same type, Thus maximum possible number of boxes = 5 when all types are lest 1,2,4,18,75

    87.

    What was the approximate difference in profit percentages of the store in 2017 and 2018?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

    Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
    As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
    200 .
    Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
    2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
    120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
    In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
    Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
    We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

     Profit percentage of the store in 2017 =100 /300 =33.3%
    Profit percentage of the store in 2018 = 50/200 = 25.0%
    The required difference 33.3- 25.0 8.3

    88.

    Revenue & Cost

    A large store has only three departments, Clothing, Produce, and Electronics. The following figure shows the percentages of revenue and cost from the three departments for the years 2016, 2017 and 2018. The dotted lines depict percentage levels. So for example, in 2016, 50% of store's revenue came from its Electronics department while 40% of its costs were incurred in the Produce department.

    CAT DI LR 2019 Slot 2

    In this setup, Profit is computed as (Revenue – Cost) and Percentage Profit as Profit/Cost × 100%.
    It is known that
    1. The percentage profit for the store in 2016 was 100%.
    2. The store’s revenue doubled from 2016 to 2017, and its cost doubled from 2016 to 2018.
    3. There was no profit from the Electronics department in 2017.
    4. In 2018, the revenue from the Clothing department was the same as the cost incurred in the Produce department.

    51.

    What was the percentage profit of the store in 2018? [TITA]

    Answer : 25

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

    Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
    As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
    200 .
    Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
    2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
    120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
    In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
    Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
    We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

    Percentage profit of the store in 2018= 50/200 = 25%

     

    52.

    What was the ratio of revenue generated from the Produce department In 2017 to that in 2018?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

    Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
    As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
    200 .
    Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
    2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
    120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
    In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
    Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
    We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

     The ratio of the revenues =160 :100 = 8 :5

    53.

    What percentage of the total profits for the store in 2016 was from the Electronics department? [TITA]

    Answer : 70

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

    Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
    As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
    200 .
    Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
    2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
    120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
    In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
    Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
    We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

     Profit of the store from the Electronics department in 2016 =100 -30 = 70
    Total profit =100 The required percentage = 70%.

    54.

    What was the approximate difference in profit percentages of the store in 2017 and 2018?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

    Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
    As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
    200 .
    Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
    2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
    120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
    In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
    Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
    We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

     Profit percentage of the store in 2017 =100 /300 =33.3%
    Profit percentage of the store in 2018 = 50/200 = 25.0%
    The required difference 33.3- 25.0 8.3

    89.

    What was the percentage profit of the store in 2018? [TITA]

    Answer : 25

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

    Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
    As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
    200 .
    Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
    2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
    120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
    In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
    Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
    We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

    Percentage profit of the store in 2018= 50/200 = 25%

     

    90.

    What was the ratio of revenue generated from the Produce department In 2017 to that in 2018?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

    Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
    As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
    200 .
    Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
    2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
    120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
    In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
    Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
    We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

     The ratio of the revenues =160 :100 = 8 :5

    91.

    What percentage of the total profits for the store in 2016 was from the Electronics department? [TITA]

    Answer : 70

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The percentage share in Revenue and cost in the different years are as follows

    Assume the cost of the store in 2016 to be 100.
    As the profit percentage that year was 100, the revenue of the store in that year would be
    200 .
    Revenue in 2017 would be 400 and cost of the store in 2018 would be 200 . Given that in
    2017,30% of 400 = 40% of cost.
    120 = 40% of cost or cost in 2017=300
    In 2018,50% of 200 = 40% of Revenue
    Revenue in 2018 100/0.4= 250
    We have the following values for Revenue and cost for the different years

     Profit of the store from the Electronics department in 2016 =100 -30 = 70
    Total profit =100 The required percentage = 70%.

    92.

    MT & ET

    The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions. Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.

    The following additional facts are known.

    i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
    ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
    iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
    iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
    v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.

     

     

    51.

    The second question in ET was prepared by:

     
    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
    Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
    questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
    least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
    remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
    marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
    marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
    number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
    of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
    It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
    the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
    has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
    10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
    marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
    together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
    other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
    given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
    other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
    following.

    Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
    faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
    also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
    are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
    appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
    understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
    questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
    each.
    It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
    6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
    marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
    ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
    we get the following:

     

     

    52.

    How many 5‐mark questions were there in MT and ET combined?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
    Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
    questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
    least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
    remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
    marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
    marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
    number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
    of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
    It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
    the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
    has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
    10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
    marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
    together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
    other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
    given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
    other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
    following.

    Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
    faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
    also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
    are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
    appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
    understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
    questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
    each.
    It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
    6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
    marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
    ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
    we get the following:

    53.

    Who prepared 15-mark questions for MT and ET?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
    Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
    questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
    least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
    remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
    marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
    marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
    number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
    of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
    It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
    the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
    has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
    10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
    marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
    together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
    other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
    given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
    other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
    following.

    Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
    faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
    also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
    are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
    appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
    understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
    questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
    each.
    It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
    6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
    marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
    ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
    we get the following:

    54.

    Which of the following questions did Beti prepare in ET?

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
    Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
    questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
    least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
    remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
    marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
    marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
    number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
    of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
    It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
    the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
    has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
    10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
    marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
    together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
    other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
    given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
    other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
    following.

    Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
    faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
    also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
    are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
    appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
    understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
    questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
    each.
    It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
    6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
    marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
    ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
    we get the following:

    93.

    The second question in ET was prepared by:

     
    Option C is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
    Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
    questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
    least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
    remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
    marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
    marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
    number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
    of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
    It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
    the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
    has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
    10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
    marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
    together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
    other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
    given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
    other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
    following.

    Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
    faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
    also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
    are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
    appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
    understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
    questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
    each.
    It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
    6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
    marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
    ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
    we get the following:

     

     

    94.

    How many 5‐mark questions were there in MT and ET combined?

    Option D is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
    Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
    questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
    least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
    remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
    marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
    marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
    number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
    of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
    It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
    the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
    has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
    10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
    marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
    together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
    other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
    given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
    other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
    following.

    Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
    faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
    also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
    are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
    appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
    understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
    questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
    each.
    It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
    6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
    marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
    ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
    we get the following:

    95.

    Who prepared 15-mark questions for MT and ET?

    Option A is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
    Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
    questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
    least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
    remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
    marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
    marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
    number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
    of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
    It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
    the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
    has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
    10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
    marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
    together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
    other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
    given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
    other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
    following.

    Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
    faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
    also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
    are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
    appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
    understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
    questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
    each.
    It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
    6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
    marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
    ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
    we get the following:

    96.

    Which of the following questions did Beti prepare in ET?

    Option B is the correct answer.

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    In the following the names of the faculties are referred by first letter of their names.
    Given that each of MT and ET carries 100 marks. Each of MT and ET has at least four
    questions of 5 marks (4 x 5 = 20), at least three questions of 10 marks (3 x 10 =30) and at
    least two questions of 15 marks (2 x 15 = 30). These together add up to 80 marks. The
    remaining 20 marks can be of the following possible combinations. (Four questions of 5
    marks) or (two questions of 10 marks) or (one question of 5 marks and 1question of 15
    marks)or (two questions of five marks and one question of ten marks). Hence, the total
    number of questions in MT or ET can be 11 or 12 or 13. It is given that ET has more number
    of questions than in MT. Hence, MT has 11 or 12 questions.
    It is given that the number of questions given by any faculty in both MT and ET together is
    the same. If MT has 12 questions and ET has 13 questions, or if MT has 11 questions and ET
    has 12 questions, this condition cannot be satisfied. Hence, MT has 11 (Five 5 marks, three
    10 marks and three 15 marks) questions and ET has 13 questions (eight 5 marks, three ten
    marks and two 15 marks). This implies, each faculty has given four questions in MT and ET
    together. Since it is given that faculty A has given only one question in MT and each of the
    other faculties has given more than one question, each of the faculties B, C, D, E and F has
    given two questions in MT. This implies faculty A has given three questions in ET and all
    other faculties have given two questions each in ET. From the given data we get the
    following.

    Except A, every other faculty gave at least two questions for MT and all the questions of a
    faculty appeared consecutively. Hence, 2nd question in MT is given by F, 4th by C, 10th by D. B
    also has given two questions and both appeared consecutively. Hence, 6th and 7th questions
    are given by B and the 9th question is given by E. In each test first all 5 marks questions
    appeared followed by 10 marks questions and then 15 marks questions. It can be
    understood that MT has five 5 marks, three 10 marks and three 15 marks. Hence, in MT
    questions 1 to 5 carry 5 marks each, 6 to 8 carry 10 marks each and 9 to 11 carry 15 marks
    each.
    It can be understood that A has given three questions for ET and each of the others has given two questions. Hence, the 2nd question of ET is given by D, the 4th question by C,
    6th and 7th questions by A, 9th by E, 10th and 11th by B and 12th by F. Since ET has eight 5
    marks questions, three ten marks questions and two 15 marks questions, questions 1 to 8 of
    ET carry 8 marks each, 9 to 11 carry ten marks each, 12 and 13 carry 15 marks each. Thus,
    we get the following:

    97.

    How many pouches contain exactly one coin? [TITA]

    Answer : 8

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
    follows:

    It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
    row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
    The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
    of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
    10+13+ 4 = 27.
    The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
    and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
    sum must be 27.
    The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
    The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
    would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
    In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
    We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

    98.

    What is the number of slots for which the average amount (in rupees) of its three pouches is an integer? [TITA]

    Answer : 2

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
    follows:

    It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
    row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
    The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
    of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
    10+13+ 4 = 27.
    The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
    and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
    sum must be 27.
    The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
    The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
    would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
    In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
    We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

    99.

    The number of slots for which the total amount in its three pouches strictly exceeds Rs. 10 is [TITA]

    Answer : 3

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
    follows:

    It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
    row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
    The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
    of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
    10+13+ 4 = 27.
    The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
    and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
    sum must be 27.
    The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
    The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
    would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
    In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
    We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

    In three slots (row 2 , column 1), (row 1 , column 2) and (row 2, column 3), the amount in
    the three pouches strictly exceeds 10

    100.

    Three pouches

    CAT DI LR 2019 Slot 2 CAT DI LR 2019 Slot 2

    Three pouches (each represented by a filled circle) are kept in each of the nine slots in a 3 × 3 grid, as shown in the figure. Every pouch has a certain number of one-rupee coins. The minimum and maximum amounts of money (in rupees) among the three pouches in each of the nine slots are given in the table. For example, we know that among the three pouches kept in the second column of the first row, the minimum amount in a pouch is Rs. 6 and the maximum amount is Rs. 8.

    There are nine pouches in any of the three columns, as well as in any of the three rows. It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. It is also known that the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4.

     

     

    51.

    What is the total amount of money (in rupees) in the three pouches kept in the first column of the second row? [TITA]

    Answer : 13

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
    follows:

    It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
    row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
    The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
    of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
    10+13+ 4 = 27.
    The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
    and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
    sum must be 27.
    The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
    The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
    would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
    In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
    We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

    52.

    How many pouches contain exactly one coin? [TITA]

    Answer : 8

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
    follows:

    It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
    row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
    The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
    of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
    10+13+ 4 = 27.
    The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
    and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
    sum must be 27.
    The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
    The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
    would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
    In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
    We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

    53.

    What is the number of slots for which the average amount (in rupees) of its three pouches is an integer? [TITA]

    Answer : 2

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
    follows:

    It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
    row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
    The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
    of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
    10+13+ 4 = 27.
    The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
    and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
    sum must be 27.
    The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
    The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
    would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
    In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
    We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

    54.

    The number of slots for which the total amount in its three pouches strictly exceeds Rs. 10 is [TITA]

    Answer : 3

    Video Explanation

    Explanatory Answer

    The minimum and maximum and possible number of coins (overall) in each slot would be as
    follows:

    It is given that the average amount of money kept in the nine pouches in any column or any
    row is an integer (a multiple of nine).
    The total amount of money in the first column must be either 18 or 27 . The minimum value
    of the sum of money in the three slots is 8 11 4 23 and the maximum value is
    10+13+ 4 = 27.
    The number of coins in the first column of the three rows are 10(2 + 4 + 4),13(3+ 5 + 5)
    and 4(1+ 2 +1) Similarly in the third row, the sum must be 18 and in the second column, the
    sum must be 27.
    The number of coins in the second column is 20(6+6 + 8) + 3(1+1+1) and 4(1+1+ 2)
    The third column in the first row would be 6(1+ 2 + 3) and the third column in the third row
    would be 10(2 + 3 +5)
    In the last column, the value in the second row would be 54 -16 = 38(6 +12 +20)
    We have the following figure for the number of coins in the pouches in each slot

    In three slots (row 2 , column 1), (row 1 , column 2) and (row 2, column 3), the amount in
    the three pouches strictly exceeds 10